What is the primary goal of nursing care for the patient who is diagnosed with any type of shock? To manage and treat:
increased cardiac output.
inadequate tissue perfusion.
fluid overload or deficit
vasoconstriction of vasculature.
The Correct Answer is B
A) Increased cardiac output:
While cardiac output is an important factor in shock management, the primary goal of nursing care is not specifically to increase cardiac output. Shock typically involves inadequate tissue perfusion, which may be caused by a variety of factors including low cardiac output, vasodilation, or fluid imbalance. The focus of nursing care is to restore adequate perfusion to tissues, which may involve improving cardiac output as part of a larger therapeutic strategy.
B) Inadequate tissue perfusion:
The primary goal in the treatment of shock is to restore adequate tissue perfusion, as shock is defined by a failure of the circulatory system to supply sufficient oxygen and nutrients to the body's tissues and organs. Inadequate tissue perfusion can lead to organ dysfunction and, if not addressed, can result in organ failure and death. Nursing interventions are aimed at improving perfusion through fluid resuscitation, vasoactive medications, and other strategies to ensure that oxygen and nutrients are delivered to vital organs.
C) Fluid overload or deficit:
Managing fluid status is crucial in shock, as fluid imbalance (either overload or deficit) can exacerbate the condition. However, fluid overload or deficit is not the primary focus; rather, it is one aspect of managing inadequate tissue perfusion. For example, in hypovolemic shock, the nurse would manage fluid deficit, while in cardiogenic shock, the focus would be on optimizing fluid balance without causing overload.
D) Vasoconstriction of vasculature:
While vasoconstriction can be a compensatory mechanism in certain types of shock (e.g., hypovolemic shock), the primary goal is not to induce vasoconstriction per se. In some cases, vasodilation may occur (as in septic shock), and vasoconstriction could be harmful. The goal is to optimize the vascular tone and perfusion, which may involve vasodilation or vasoconstriction depending on the type of shock.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) Painful areas on the affected side following 3 branches of the nerve:
This is not typically a feature of Bell's Palsy. Bell's Palsy is primarily a motor dysfunction of the facial nerve (cranial nerve VII), leading to facial weakness. The pain associated with Bell's Palsy, if present, is usually mild and localized to the jaw, behind the ear, or along the jawline rather than along all three branches of the trigeminal nerve (cranial nerve V), which controls sensation in the face. Therefore, this choice is not consistent with the typical presentation of Bell's Palsy.
B) Decreased visual acuity when tested with Snellen Chart:
Decreased visual acuity is not a primary feature of Bell's Palsy. This condition specifically affects facial nerve function, which controls the muscles of facial expression, including those responsible for closing the eyes tightly. However, Bell's Palsy does not typically result in visual changes such as decreased visual acuity or problems with vision itself. Decreased vision would be more indicative of an issue with the optic nerve (cranial nerve II) or other eye-related conditions.
C) Unilateral upper and lower facial weakness including forehead:
This is the hallmark sign of Bell's Palsy. The facial nerve (cranial nerve VII) controls the muscles of the face, and when it becomes affected by Bell's Palsy, both the upper and lower parts of the face on one side can be weak or paralyzed. Importantly, Bell's Palsy causes inability to wrinkle the forehead, which distinguishes it from stroke, where the forehead is typically spared because the upper part of the facial muscles receives bilateral input from the brain. Thus, both upper and lower facial weakness, including inability to raise the eyebrow (forehead), is characteristic of Bell's Palsy.
D) Facial dropping, with arm and leg weakness on the affected side:
Facial drooping is a common symptom of Bell's Palsy, but arm and leg weakness is not associated with it. Arm and leg weakness on the same side would be more suggestive of a stroke affecting the cerebrovascular system, rather than a peripheral nerve issue like Bell's Palsy. Bell's Palsy is confined to facial nerve dysfunction and does not cause weakness in the limbs.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) Glasgow Coma Scale:
The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a standardized neurological assessment tool used to assess a patient's level of consciousness based on three criteria: eye opening, verbal response, and motor response. Each of these categories is scored, and the total score helps to determine the depth of the patient's consciousness. The GCS is commonly used to monitor changes in a patient's neurological status, especially after trauma, stroke, or other conditions that may impair brain function.
B) NIH Stroke Scale:
The NIH Stroke Scale (NIHSS) is used to assess the severity of stroke symptoms and includes measures such as facial droop, arm and leg motor function, speech, and language abilities. It is used specifically to evaluate stroke symptoms and is not designed for the rapid assessment of general consciousness like the Glasgow Coma Scale.
C) Romberg Test:
The Romberg Test is a test of balance that is performed by having the patient stand with their feet together, eyes closed, and observing for any swaying or loss of balance. It is used to evaluate proprioception and cerebellar function, not to assess the level of consciousness.
D) Mini Mental Status Exam:
The Mini-Mental Status Exam (MMSE) is a brief cognitive screening tool that assesses aspects of cognitive function such as orientation, attention, memory, language, and visuospatial skills. While the MMSE can provide insight into cognitive function, it does not focus on the specific assessment of consciousness level (eye opening, verbal response, motor response) as the GCS does.
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