The nurse is caring for patient with a history of atrial fibrillation who is prescribed warfarin. Sometimes I forget my medication, so l double up doses when I remember " The patient's PT and INR are highly elevated. The nurse anticipates the transfusion of which blood product?

Packed Red Blood Cells (PRBC's)

Platelets

Cryoprecipitate

Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP)

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A) Packed Red Blood Cells (PRBCs):
Packed Red Blood Cells are typically transfused when there is anemia or significant blood loss leading to low hemoglobin levels. In the case of warfarin overdose or elevated PT/INR, the problem is related to coagulation and not red blood cell count.

B) Platelets:
Platelets are typically transfused when there is thrombocytopenia or a need to address platelet dysfunction (e.g., in patients with bleeding due to low platelet counts). However, the elevated PT and INR in this case are related to the coagulation cascade being inhibited by warfarin, not platelet deficiency.

C) Cryoprecipitate:
Cryoprecipitate is primarily used to replace clotting factors such as fibrinogen, factor VIII, and von Willebrand factor. It is typically transfused in patients with hemophilia or bleeding disorders related to low fibrinogen levels. However, in this case, the issue is related to warfarin-induced inhibition of clotting factors (specifically the vitamin K-dependent factors: II, VII, IX, and X), not a deficiency in fibrinogen or specific clotting factors addressed by cryoprecipitate.

D) Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP):
Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP) is the most appropriate choice for this patient. FFP contains all the coagulation factors, including the vitamin K-dependent factors that warfarin inhibits. When a patient on warfarin presents with elevated PT and INR (which indicates impaired clotting ability), FFP is used to replace the clotting factors and help reverse the effects of warfarin.

Nursing Test Bank

Test Bank #1: RN Pharmacology Exams Test Bank #2: RN Medical-Surgical Exams Test Bank #3: RN Fundamentals Exams Test Bank #4: RN Maternal-Newborn Exams Test Bank #5: RN Anatomy and Physiology Exams Test Bank #6: RN Obstetrics and Pediatrics Exams Test Bank #7: RN Fluid and Electrolytes Exams Test Bank #9: RN Adult Health Test Bank #10: RN Dosage Calculation Test Bank #11: RN Community Health Exams Test Bank #12: RN Psychology Exams Test Bank #13: RN Nursing Care Of Children Test Bank #14: RN Foundations of Nursing Exams

Get 100+ Naxlex Exit Exams for $79 Try Naxlex NCLEX-RN (14 Day Free-Trial)

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Exam #1: RN Comprehensive predictor 2023 proctored exam Exam #2: Ati rn vati comprehensive predictor proctored exam Exam #3: Ati Rn Comprehensive Predictor Proctored Exam 2023 Exam #4: Rn Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Proctored Exam - St. Joseph Exam #5: RN Comprehensive Predictor Proctored Exam (National U CA San Diego) Exam #6: Ati rn comprehensive predictor 2023 retake proctored exam Exam #7: RN Hesi Exit Proctored Exam Exam #8: Hesi RN Exit proctored exam Exam #9: Hesi rn exit proctored exam Exam #10: Hesi Rn compass exit B proctored exam

Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A) Treatment plan will need to be changed to achieve the desired effect:
The decrease in the carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) levels from 50 ng/mL to 10 ng/mL suggests that the cancer is responding to the current treatment, not that the treatment plan needs to be changed. A drop in CEA levels typically indicates a positive response to treatment, such as chemotherapy, in reducing the number or size of cancer cells.

B) Cancer treatment is having the desired effect on killing cancer cells:
Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is a tumor marker that is often elevated in individuals with certain cancers, particularly colorectal cancer. A decrease in CEA levels, as noted in this case (from 50 ng/mL to 10 ng/mL), usually signifies that the treatment is successfully targeting the cancer and reducing the tumor burden. This drop suggests that the chemotherapy is effectively killing cancer cells and reducing the size or activity of the tumor.

C) Client is at greater risk for tumor lysis syndrome:
Tumor lysis syndrome typically occurs when large numbers of cancer cells die rapidly, releasing their intracellular contents into the bloodstream, which can lead to metabolic disturbances like hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, and renal failure. It is more common in aggressive hematologic cancers, such as leukemia or lymphoma, and typically presents with a rapid rise in tumor marker levels, not a decrease.

D) Cancer has increased size and metastatic sites:
An increase in tumor size or the development of metastatic sites would typically result in an increase in CEA levels, not a decrease. Since CEA levels have dropped, it is more likely that the cancer is shrinking or responding to the current treatment. This finding is more indicative of a positive response rather than disease progression.

A. Measure heart chamber pressures to assess for heart failure B. Determine cardiac output during the procedure. C. Evaluate the extent of the occlusion of the coronary arteries involved D. Prevent extensive myocardial damage

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A) Measure heart chamber pressures to assess for heart failure:
Measuring heart chamber pressures is an important diagnostic tool in assessing heart failure, but it is not the primary goal in the case of a STEMI (ST-Elevation Myocardial Infarction). In STEMI, the primary goal is to identify and treat the blockage in the coronary arteries that is causing the heart attack.

B) Determine cardiac output during the procedure:
Cardiac output is a useful measurement for assessing heart function, but it is not the main focus during the treatment of STEMI. While monitoring cardiac output may be part of the overall care, the urgent priority in STEMI management is to restore blood flow to the affected myocardial tissue as quickly as possible to minimize damage, not to measure cardiac output.

C) Evaluate the extent of the occlusion of the coronary arteries involved:
While evaluating the extent of coronary artery occlusion is part of the process during a cardiac catheterization, the immediate priority for a patient with STEMI is to treat the blockage, not just evaluate it. While the angiogram will reveal the blockage, the treatment goal is to restore perfusion to the affected area of the heart through procedures such as balloon angioplasty or stent placement.

D) Prevent extensive myocardial damage:
This is the correct answer. The main goal of treatment for STEMI is to prevent extensive myocardial damage. In a STEMI, the coronary artery is blocked, depriving the heart muscle of oxygen, which can cause significant damage or death of the myocardial tissue. The most effective way to limit the extent of damage is to restore blood flow as quickly as possible, often through emergent procedures like percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) or fibrinolytic therapy.

View Question and Answer

Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.

Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today

The nurse is caring for patient with a history of atrial fibrillation who is prescribed warfarin. Sometimes I forget my medication, so l double up doses when I remember " The patient's PT and INR are highly elevated. The nurse anticipates the transfusion of which blood product?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is reviewing lab results for a client receiving chemotherapy for the treatment of cancer. The nurse notes the carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) was previously 50 ng/ mL and is now 10 ng/mL (normal range 0-2.5 ng/mL) The nurse is aware this finding indicates the:

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A client admitted to the Emergency Department with a suspected STEM. The nurse anticipates that this client will be immediately prepared for the cardiac catheterization laboratory as the goal of treatment is to:

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with Myasthenia Gravis (MG) who is post op thymectomy. The client problem is Ineffective Breathing Pattern, Which action would the nurse include in the plan of care?

The nurse is providing education to the client diagnosed with multiple sclerosis (MS) about baclofen. What statement made by the client would indicate to the nurse that the client understood the education? The client states ‘’I will

A nurse is providing care with for a client diagnosed with human immunodeficiency virus. The client discusses concerns about transmitting the virus to their family members. What should the nurse include in client education? The nurse teaches the client to:

A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of bladder cancer Which of the following interventions should the nurse take to promote comfort?

To properly identify a cardiac rhythm, the nurse will obtain the following factors. (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)

The nurse notices a yellow stain around fluid dripping from a patient’s ear who sustained a traumatic brain injury. The nurse's priority intervention will be as follows:

The nurse is caring for client who is four days post-operative open repair of an abdominal aortic aneurysm the abdomen is distended. The client is complaining abdominal pain and the abdomen is distended. What action should the nurse take at this time?

In providing care to a patient who sustained left sided 10th through 12th rib fractures, the nurse notes Kehr's Cullen's and Gray Turner's signs during assessment. Which abdominal organ is most likely to be affected by this trauma?