Exhibits
The nurse is reviewing the chart. select the condition from the choices below to fill in each blank in the following sentence. Based on the client's history and physical, the nurse notes that this postpartum client is most at risk for developing
The Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"D","dropdown-group-2":"A"}
This client is at risk for VTE due to several factors, including being postpartum, prolonged labor (25 hours), and potential immobility after delivery. Additionally, the presence of a 4th-degree laceration may lead to decreased mobility, increasing the risk of blood clots.
Wound Dehiscence:
The client has a 4th-degree laceration, which involves a significant degree of tissue damage and may require careful monitoring for proper healing. Factors such as infection (noted by slight fever), tension on the wound, or inadequate healing can contribute to the risk of dehiscence.-
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is {"A":{"answers":"B"},"B":{"answers":"A"},"C":{"answers":"A"},"D":{"answers":"B"},"E":{"answers":"A"},"F":{"answers":"A"},"G":{"answers":"B"}}
Explanation
200 mL blood loss: Indicates ongoing bleeding, putting the client at risk for hypovolemia.
Fundus massaged until firm and at umbilicus: This indicates improved uterine tone, reducing the risk of postpartum hemorrhage.
Blood pressure of 110/80 mm Hg, heart rate of 66 beats/min, oxygen saturation at 98% on room air: Stable vital signs suggest improvement in the client’s condition.
Total blood loss of 800 mL: A total blood loss of this amount is concerning, indicating a risk for hypovolemia.
Fundus remains firm with slight lochia noted on pad: A firm fundus indicates that uterine involution is occurring properly, which is a positive sign.
Straight catheter produced 500 mL clear yellow urine: Adequate urine output indicates good kidney perfusion and hydration status.
Multiple large clots were expelled: The presence of large clots is concerning and indicates the possibility of further bleeding, putting the client at risk for hypovolemia.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Advising the client to stop taking the medication immediately is not safe, as abrupt discontinuation of benzodiazepines can lead to withdrawal symptoms and increased anxiety.
B. Encouraging the client to obtain a prescription for a benzodiazepine antagonist is unnecessary and not a standard approach for managing side effects of temazepam.
C. Instructing the client that it is important to reduce the dose of the medication gradually is the best approach to minimize withdrawal symptoms and adverse effects, ensuring a safer transition off the medication.
D. Discussing the need for additional sleep may validate the client’s concerns, but it does not address the primary issue of managing the side effects of the medication effectively.
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