Early detection allows for antenatal management for better neonatal outcomes. Your patient is 32 weeks gestation, gravida 5 para 4 and after a routine ultrasound she is told her baby is very small and has IUGR. She asks you what causes this and you tell her:
Infection
Previous preterm birth
Utero-placental insufficiency
Chronic hypertension
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: Infection is not a common cause of IUGR, as most infections do not cross the placenta and affect the fetal growth. However, some infections such as cytomegalovirus, rubella, or toxoplasmosis can cause congenital anomalies and IUGR.
Choice B reason: Previous preterm birth is not a direct cause of IUGR, as it does not affect the current pregnancy. However, it may indicate an underlying maternal or fetal condition that could increase the risk of IUGR, such as cervical incompetence, placental abruption, or preeclampsia.
Choice C reason: Utero-placental insufficiency is the most common cause of IUGR, as it reduces the blood flow and oxygen delivery to the fetus. It can result from maternal factors such as hypertension, diabetes, smoking, or drug abuse, or from placental factors such as placenta previa, placental infarction, or cord compression.
Choice D reason: Chronic hypertension is a risk factor for IUGR, as it can lead to utero-placental insufficiency and fetal hypoxia. However, it is not the only cause of IUGR, as other factors can also affect the placental function and fetal growth.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Ceftriaxone is incorrect because it is not the drug of choice for syphilis treatment. It is a cephalosporin antibiotic that can be used for other bacterial infections, such as gonorrhea, meningitis, or pneumonia.
Choice B reason: Penicillin G is correct because it is the drug of choice for syphilis treatment. It is a penicillin antibiotic that can effectively cure syphilis at any stage, except for neurosyphilis, which requires intravenous administration.
Choice C reason: Acyclovir is incorrect because it is not the drug of choice for syphilis treatment. It is an antiviral medication that can be used for viral infections, such as herpes simplex virus, varicella-zoster virus, or cytomegalovirus.
Choice D reason: Tetracycline is incorrect because it is not the drug of choice for syphilis treatment. It is a tetracycline antibiotic that can be used for other bacterial infections, such as chlamydia, acne, or Lyme disease.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A: Decreased production of erythrocytes
This is not the primary cause of iron deficiency anemia during pregnancy. While erythrocyte production may be affected in certain conditions, it is not directly linked to iron deficiency anemia in pregnancy¹.
Choice B: Inadequate intake of iron
This is the correct answer. During pregnancy, the body needs more iron to make hemoglobin for the increased volume of blood. If the intake of iron is not sufficient, it could lead to iron deficiency anemia¹.
Choice C: Dilution of hemoglobin concentration
While it's true that the blood volume increases during pregnancy, leading to a relative dilution of hemoglobin, this is not the primary cause of iron deficiency anemia. The main issue is the lack of sufficient iron intake¹.
Choice D: The fetus establishing iron stores
While the fetus does require iron, which it gets from the mother, this is not the primary cause of iron deficiency anemia during pregnancy. The main issue is still the mother's inadequate intake of iron¹.
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