During her gynecologic checkup, a 30-year-old client states that recently she has been experiencing abdominal cramping and pain 3-4 days before and during her menstrual periods. The patient also complains of nausea, vomiting, headache, and irritability. The nurse would document these complaints as:

Select one:

Dysmenorrhea.

Dyspareunia.

Amenorrhea.

Premenstrual syndrome (PMS).

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

a.   Dysmenorrhea refers to painful menstruation, which may be accompanied by abdominal cramping and pain.
b.   Dyspareunia refers to painful sexual intercourse, which is not described in the scenario.
c.   Amenorrhea refers to the absence of menstrual periods, which is not described in the scenario.
d.   The symptoms described in the scenario are consistent with premenstrual syndrome, which includes physical and emotional symptoms such as abdominal cramping and pain, nausea, vomiting, headache, and irritability that occur before and during menstruation.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

a. The function of the ductus arteriosus is to bypass the lungs in fetal circulation, allowing oxygenated blood from the placenta to be shunted directly to systemic circulation.
b. Ductus arteriosus does not bypass the brain; it specifically bypasses the lungs.

c. Ductus venosus shunts blood away from the liver, not the ductus arteriosus.

d. Ductus arteriosus shunts blood away from the lungs, not the heart itself.

A. Bulging of the vulva B. The membranes rupture during a contraction C. The fetal head is felt at 0 station during vaginal examination D. Bloody mucus discharge increases

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

a. Bulging of the vulva: This indicates that the fetal head is descending but does not necessarily mean the woman is almost ready to give birth. This indicates that the fetal head is crowning and putting pressure on the perineum, which means that delivery is imminent.
b. This indicates that the amniotic sac has ruptured but does not necessarily mean the woman is almost ready to give birth.
c. The fetal head at 0 station means that it is at the level of the maternal ischial spines, but it still needs to descend further to reach the perineum.
d. This indicates that the woman is in the early stages of labor but does not necessarily mean she is almost ready to give birth.

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Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is reviewing fetal circulation with a pregnant patient and explains that blood circulates through the placenta to the fetus. What is the function of ductus arteriosus? Select one:

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Which nursing assessment indicates that a woman who is in second-stage labor is almost ready to give birth Select one:

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A woman at 10 weeks of gestation who is seen in the prenatal clinic with presumptive signs and symptoms of pregnancy likely will have:

A 37 weeks pregnant female reports to the nurse that she is sleeping in a supine position and feels dizzy after waking up in the morning. What advice does the nurse give to the patient? Select one:

When evaluating a patient for sexually transmitted infections (STIs), the nurse should be aware that the most common bacterial STI is: Select one:

A nurse is caring for a client who has a suspected ectopic pregnancy at 8 weeks of gestation. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect to identify as consistent with the diagnosis?

The nurse tells a woman who is trying to conceive to check her cervical mucus for changes. What will she expect the characteristic of cervical mucus to be a few days before ovulation? Select one:

A 25 years old patient at 38 weeks gestation who is in labor is being treated with magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia. Which nursing intervention does not correspond with this medication's toxicity? Select one:

A nurse is caring for an adolescent client who is gravida 1 and para 0. The client was admitted to the hospital at 38 weeks of gestation with a diagnosis of preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as inconsistent with preeclampsia?