Assessment of a female client reveals a thick, white vaginal discharge. She also reports intense itching and dyspareunia. Based on these findings, the nurse would suspect that the client has:

Trichomoniasis

Genital herpes simplex

Candidiasis

Bacterial vaginosis

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A: Trichomoniasis is not the correct answer because it does not match the findings of the client. Trichomoniasis is a sexually transmitted infection (STI) caused by a parasite called Trichomonas vaginalis. It can cause symptoms such as yellow-green or gray frothy vaginal discharge, foul odor, itching, burning, or redness of the vulva or vagina.

Choice B: Genital herpes simplex is not the correct answer because it does not match the findings of the client. Genital herpes simplex is an STI caused by a virus called herpes simplex virus (HSV). It can cause symptoms such as painful blisters or ulcers on or around the genitals, fever, headache, or swollen lymph nodes.

Choice C: Candidiasis is the correct answer because it matches the findings of the client. Candidiasis is a fungal infection caused by a yeast called Candida albicans. It can cause symptoms such as thick, white, cottage cheese-like vaginal discharge, intense itching, burning, or soreness of the vulva or vagina, or dyspareunia (painful sexual intercourse).

Choice D: Bacterial vaginosis is not the correct answer because it does not match the findings of the client. Bacterial vaginosis is a condition caused by an imbalance of the normal vaginal flora (the bacteria that live in the vagina). It can cause symptoms such as thin, gray-white or yellow vaginal discharge, fishy odor, itching, or burning of the vulva or vagina.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason: Antiestrogens are not a first-line treatment for endometriosis, as they can cause severe side effects such as bone loss, hot flashes, and vaginal dryness.

Choice B reason: Progestins are a first-line treatment for endometriosis, as they can suppress the growth of endometrial tissue and reduce pain and bleeding.

Choice C reason: Gonadotropin-releasing hormone analogues are a second-line treatment for endometriosis, as they can induce temporary menopause and cause bone loss, hot flashes, and mood changes.

Choice D reason: NSAIDs are not a treatment for endometriosis, as they can only provide symptomatic relief for pain and inflammation.

A. "A provider can help you with that after a physical examination." B. "You are so young. Are you ready for the responsibilities of a sexual relationship?" C. "Because of your age, I think that a barrier method would be the best choice." D. "Before I can help you, I need to know more about your sexual activity."

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A:This response suggests that a physical examination is necessary before providing contraceptive advice. While a healthcare provider may conduct a physical examination as part of comprehensive care, making it a prerequisite for discussing contraception can create barriers for adolescents seeking information. Emphasizing a physical exam may deter open communication, as adolescents might feel apprehensive or judged. Effective contraceptive counseling should prioritize building rapport and understanding the individual's needs and concerns before proceeding to clinical

Choice B: "You are so young. Are you ready for the responsibilities of a sexual relationship?" This response is inappropriate and judgmental because it implies that the client is too immature or irresponsible to have a sexual relationship. It also discourages the client from seeking help or information from the nurse and may make her feel ashamed or guilty about her sexuality.

Choice C: "Because of your age, I think that a barrier method would be the best choice." This response is inappropriate and paternalistic because it assumes that the nurse knows what is best for the client without considering her individual situation or preferences. It also limits the client's options and may not address her specific needs or concerns.

Choice D:This response is appropriate as it seeks to gather more information about the adolescent's sexual activity, which is crucial for providing tailored contraceptive advice. Understanding the individual's sexual behavior, frequency of activity, number of partners, and risk factors allows the healthcare provider to recommend the most suitable contraceptive methods and address any concerns about sexually transmitted infections. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention highlight the importance of personalized counseling that takes into account the adolescent's specific circumstances to promote effective contraceptive use and sexual health.

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Assessment of a female client reveals a thick, white vaginal discharge. She also reports intense itching and dyspareunia. Based on these findings, the nurse would suspect that the client has:

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client who has come to the clinic is diagnosed with endometriosis. What would the nurse expect the primary care provider to prescribe as a first-line treatment?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A nurse is leading a discussion about contraception with a group of 14-year-old clients. After the presentation, a client asks the nurse which method would be best for her to use. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A client is diagnosed with an enterocele. The nurse interprets this condition as:

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