An older client who is agitated, dyspneic, orthopneic, and using accessory muscles to breathe is admitted for further treatment. Initial assessment includes a heart rate 128 beats/minute and irregular, respirations 38 breaths/minute, blood pressure 168/100 mmHg, wheezes and crackles in all lung fields. An hour after the administration of furosemide 60 mg IV, which assessments should the nurse obtain to determine the client's response to treatment? (Select all that apply.)
Skin elasticity.
Urinary output.
Oxygen saturation.
Lung sounds.
Pain scale.
Correct Answer : B,C,D
A. Skin elasticity:
Assessing skin elasticity is a measure of hydration status. Improved skin turgor may suggest that the client is responding positively to diuretic therapy by eliminating excess fluid. However, this may not be as immediate or specific as other indicators of response.
B. Urinary output:
Monitoring urinary output is crucial when administering diuretics like furosemide. Increased urine output indicates that the diuretic is promoting the elimination of excess fluid from the body, which is a desired effect in managing heart failure and fluid overload.
C. Oxygen saturation:
Assessing oxygen saturation is important in monitoring respiratory status. Improvement in oxygen saturation levels indicates that the client is responding to interventions aimed at relieving respiratory distress, such as the administration of furosemide.
D. Lung sounds:
Monitoring lung sounds is a key aspect of assessing respiratory function. Reduction in wheezes and crackles suggests that the diuretic is helping to alleviate pulmonary congestion and fluid accumulation in the lungs, contributing to improved respiratory function.
E. Pain scale:
Assessing pain is relevant if the client has reported chest pain or discomfort associated with heart failure. Reduction in pain may indicate improved cardiac function and response to treatment. However, it's important to note that pain assessment may not be as specific to the effects of furosemide as other respiratory and fluid status indicators.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Platelet count 40,000 x10/μL (40.000 x109/L):
This is the correct answer. A platelet count of 40,000 x10/μL is significantly below the normal range (usually around 150,000 to 450,000/μL). Low platelet count (thrombocytopenia) can increase the risk of bleeding during and after a surgical procedure. The healthcare provider should be alerted to assess the risk and determine the appropriate management.
B. White blood cells 9,000/μL (9x109/L):
The white blood cell count is within the normal range, and it is not a significant concern for a vertebroplasty procedure.
C. Hematocrit 38% (0.38):
The hematocrit level is within the normal range and is not a significant concern for a vertebroplasty procedure.
D. Hemoglobin 12 g/dL (120 g/L):
The hemoglobin level is within the normal range and is not a significant concern for a vertebroplasty procedure.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Initiate cardiac telemetry:
Cardiac telemetry is not the immediate priority in this case. Kidney stones are more likely to cause severe localized pain rather than cardiac-related symptoms.
B. Administer a PRN dose of a laxative:
Laxatives are not indicated for the management of kidney stones or the associated flank pain. The priority is to address the specific needs related to the possible passage of kidney stones.
C. Implement seizure precautions:
Seizure precautions are not relevant to the sudden onset of severe flank pain in the context of hyperparathyroidism. The focus should be on managing pain, assessing for kidney stone passage, and addressing the underlying cause.
D. Begin straining all urine.
Straining all urine allows for the collection and examination of any passed stones. This information is important for identifying the composition of the stones and guiding further management.
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