An older client who is agitated, dyspneic, orthopneic, and using accessory muscles to breathe is admitted for further treatment. Initial assessment includes a heart rate 128 beats/minute and irregular, respirations 38 breaths/minute, blood pressure 168/100 mmHg, wheezes and crackles in all lung fields. An hour after the administration of furosemide 60 mg IV, which assessments should the nurse obtain to determine the client's response to treatment? (Select all that apply.)
Skin elasticity.
Urinary output.
Oxygen saturation.
Lung sounds.
Pain scale.
Correct Answer : B,C,D
A. Skin elasticity:
Assessing skin elasticity is a measure of hydration status. Improved skin turgor may suggest that the client is responding positively to diuretic therapy by eliminating excess fluid. However, this may not be as immediate or specific as other indicators of response.
B. Urinary output:
Monitoring urinary output is crucial when administering diuretics like furosemide. Increased urine output indicates that the diuretic is promoting the elimination of excess fluid from the body, which is a desired effect in managing heart failure and fluid overload.
C. Oxygen saturation:
Assessing oxygen saturation is important in monitoring respiratory status. Improvement in oxygen saturation levels indicates that the client is responding to interventions aimed at relieving respiratory distress, such as the administration of furosemide.
D. Lung sounds:
Monitoring lung sounds is a key aspect of assessing respiratory function. Reduction in wheezes and crackles suggests that the diuretic is helping to alleviate pulmonary congestion and fluid accumulation in the lungs, contributing to improved respiratory function.
E. Pain scale:
Assessing pain is relevant if the client has reported chest pain or discomfort associated with heart failure. Reduction in pain may indicate improved cardiac function and response to treatment. However, it's important to note that pain assessment may not be as specific to the effects of furosemide as other respiratory and fluid status indicators.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Facial puffiness and periorbital edema:
These are common signs of hypothyroidism but may not require immediate action unless accompanied by severe symptoms.
B. Cold and dry skin:
Cold and dry skin is a characteristic feature of hypothyroidism, but a further decline in the level of consciousness is a more urgent issue.
C. Further decline in the level of consciousness.
A decline in the level of consciousness is a critical sign that requires immediate attention, as it may indicate worsening hypothyroidism, myxedema coma, or other serious complications. Myxedema coma is a life-threatening condition associated with severe hypothyroidism, and it requires prompt medical intervention.
D. Hematocrit of 30% (0.30):
While anemia is a potential complication of hypothyroidism, a hematocrit of 30% alone may not be the most immediate concern compared to a decline in the level of consciousness.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Jugular vein distention:
Jugular vein distention is not typically associated with an increased risk of a stroke. It may be indicative of issues related to cardiac or fluid volume status.
B. Carotid bruit:
This is the correct answer. A carotid bruit, an abnormal sound caused by turbulent blood flow through the carotid artery, may indicate the presence of atherosclerosis and increased risk of stroke. It suggests a narrowing or blockage in the carotid artery, which can potentially lead to emboli and subsequent stroke.
C. Nuchal rigidity:
Nuchal rigidity, stiffness of the neck, is associated with conditions such as meningitis but is not a direct risk factor for a stroke.
D. Palpable cervical lymph node:
Palpable cervical lymph nodes may be indicative of infection or inflammation in the head and neck region but are not directly associated with an increased risk of a stroke.
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