An older adult client with heart failure comes to the emergency room because of nausea, vomiting, and anorexia. Based on the client's signs and symptoms, which data from the medical history has the most significance when planning this client's care?

Coronary artery bypass procedure was performed in 1995.

Colonoscopy performed for routine screening six months ago.

Digoxin and furosemide daily since 1996.

Suffered with depression following death of spouse in 1999.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. The history of coronary artery bypass surgery is important but does not directly relate to the current symptoms.
B. A recent colonoscopy is not relevant to the client's current symptoms.
C. Long-term use of digoxin and furosemide is highly significant as these medications can lead to digoxin toxicity, especially in the context of dehydration or renal insufficiency. Symptoms like nausea, vomiting, and anorexia are classic signs of digoxin toxicity.
D. A history of depression is important but not immediately relevant to the current symptoms of nausea, vomiting, and anorexia.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin, and its dose is not based on before-meal blood sugar readings.
B. The client needs to be taught how to self-administer insulin glargine, as it is given subcutaneously once daily, usually at the same time each day.
C. Increasing the dosage in response to ketoacidosis is inappropriate; emergency treatment is required for this condition.
D. Insulin glargine does not have a role in treating severe hypoglycemia; fast-acting glucose or glucagon is used for such situations.

A. Apply light pressure proximal to the IV site. B. Assess the radial pulse distal to the IV site. C. Assist the client to straighten the right arm. D. Elevate the client's right arm on one pillow.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Applying pressure proximal to the IV site is not appropriate and could cause further complications.
B. Assessing the radial pulse is important but is not the immediate response to the occlusion alarm.
C. Straightening the arm can help relieve a positional occlusion, which is a common cause of such alarms.
D. Elevating the arm may help with venous return but is not a first-line action for addressing the occlusion alarm.

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An older adult client with heart failure comes to the emergency room because of nausea, vomiting, and anorexia. Based on the client's signs and symptoms, which data from the medical history has the most significance when planning this client's care?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is planning discharge teaching for a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus who has a new prescription for insulin glargine. Which action should the nurse plan to Include in the discharge teaching?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A client has an IV solution infusing through a catheter inserted in the right antecubital area. The infusion pump is alarming and indicates an occlusion. Which action should the nurse take?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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