A client taking temazepam informs the nurse of plans to quit taking the medication due to feelings of "hungover" the next day. Which action should the nurse implement?
Encourage the client to obtain a prescription for a benzodiazepine antagonist.
Instruct the client that it is important to reduce the dose of the medication gradually.
Discuss with the client that there may be a need for additional sleep if the feeling of fatigue is present the next day.
Advise the client to stop taking the medication immediately.
The Correct Answer is B
Rationale
A. Benzodiazepine antagonists, such as flumazenil, are used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepines in cases of overdose or excessive sedation. However, in the context of using temazepam for insomnia, this is not a standard approach.
B. Benzodiazepines like temazepam should not be stopped abruptly, especially if they have been taken regularly. Abrupt cessation can lead to withdrawal symptoms, including rebound insomnia, anxiety, agitation, and potentially seizures in severe cases.
C. This option addresses the symptom of feeling "hungover" or fatigued the next day after taking temazepam. It acknowledges that residual sedation or drowsiness can occur with temazepam use. The nurse can educate the client about the potential for these side effects and suggest allowing for adequate time for sleep to alleviate these symptoms.
D. Stopping temazepam abruptly is not recommended because it can lead to withdrawal symptoms and potentially worsen insomnia. This option does not address the need for tapering off the medication or managing the symptoms effectively.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Rationale
A. In heart failure exacerbation, decreased cardiac output can lead to poor peripheral perfusion, potentially manifesting as weak or diminished pedal pulses. However, in the context of acute symptoms such as palpitations or chest discomfort, assessing the rhythm and rate of central pulses (like the apical pulse) may be more immediate and informative.
B. Capillary refill time assesses peripheral perfusion and can indicate circulatory status. Prolonged capillary refill (>2 seconds) may indicate poor perfusion, which could occur in heart failure exacerbation due to reduced cardiac output. It is a valuable assessment, but in this scenario, focusing on more central aspects such as the heart rhythm is typically more immediate.
C. Assessing the rhythm of the apical pulse is crucial in this scenario. The client's sensation of "flopping" in the chest suggests palpitations or irregular heartbeats, which could indicate arrhythmias such as atrial fibrillation or other dysrhythmias.
D. Skin elasticity primarily assesses hydration status and may provide information about overall skin integrity but is less directly related to the acute symptoms described by the client. While important in general assessments, it does not directly address the urgent need to assess for arrhythmias or irregular heartbeats.
Correct Answer is ["0.75"]
Explanation
Calculate the volume of the reconstituted solution that contains the prescribed dose of 0.1875 mg. Since the reconstituted solution has a concentration of 0.25 mg per 1 mL, we can set up a proportion to find the answer: (0.1875 mg / X mL) = (0.25 mg / 1 mL).
Solving for X gives us X = (0.1875 mg * 1 mL) / 0.25 mg, which equals 0.75 mL.
Therefore, the nurse should administer 0.75 mL of the reconstituted solution.
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