A client receives a prescription for 1 L of lactated Ringer's IV to be infused over 12 hours. The IV administration set delivers 15 gtt/mL. How many gtt/min should the nurse regulate the infusion?
(Enter numerical value only. If rounding is required, round to the nearest whole number.)
The Correct Answer is ["21"]
To calculate the flow rate in gtt/min, you can use the formula: (Volume in mL * Drop factor) / Time in
minutes.
For 1 L of lactated Ringer's IV, which is 1000 mL, to be infused over 12 hours, with an IV administration set that delivers 15 gtt/mL, the calculation would be: (1000 mL * 15 gtt/mL) / (12 hours * 60 minutes/hour).
This simplifies to (15000 gtt) / (720 minutes), which equals approximately 20.83 gtt/min.
Therefore, the nurse should regulate the infusion to 21 gtt/min, rounding to the nearest whole
number.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Rationale
A. Monitoring blood glucose levels is important, especially in critically ill patients, as hyperglycemia can worsen outcomes in septic shock. However, it is not the most critical intervention in the immediate management of septic shock.
B. Monitoring intake and output (I/O) is essential for assessing fluid balance, which is crucial in managing septic shock. Maintaining a strict I/O helps in determining fluid resuscitation needs and evaluating response to treatment. This intervention is important but may not be the most critical initially.
C. Assessing warmth of extremities is important as it helps in evaluating peripheral perfusion, which can be compromised in septic shock. Cold extremities can indicate poor tissue perfusion and may prompt the need for interventions such as fluid resuscitation.
D. Keeping the head of the bed elevated to 45 degrees is a specific intervention aimed at improving oxygenation and respiratory function, particularly in patients who may be mechanically ventilated or at risk of respiratory compromise. While this is an important intervention, it is not directly related to managing septic shock itself.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Rationale
A. Client A's oxygen saturation is acceptable for someone with emphysema.
B. This is because Client B's postoperative hemoglobin level is 8.2 mg/dL, which is significantly lower than the normal reference range of 14 to 18 g/dL. This indicates that Client B is anemic and may require a blood transfusion to increase the hemoglobin level.
C. Client C's potassium level is within the normal range
D. Client D's WBC count is elevated, moving them into isolation is not indicated solely based on an elevated WBC count.
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