An Apgar score of 10 at 1 minute after birth would indicate a(n):

Infant having no difficulty adjusting to extrauterine life and needing no further testing.

Infant in severe distress who needs resuscitation.

Prediction of a future free of neurologic problems.

Infant having no difficulty adjusting to extrauterine life but who should be assessed again at 5 minutes after birth.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

An Apgar score of 10 at 1 minute after birth indicates that the infant is having no difficulty adjusting to extrauterine life but who should be assessed again at 5 minutes after birth. The Apgar score is a scoring system that evaluates the health of newborns at 1 and 5 minutes after birth based on five criteria: appearance, pulse, grimace, activity, and respiration. Each criterion is scored from 0 to 2, and the total score ranges from 0 to 10. A score of 7 to 10 is considered reassuring, a score of 4 to 6 is moderately abnormal, and a score of 0 to 3 is concerning.

Choice A is wrong because an Apgar score of 10 at 1 minute does not mean that the infant needs no further testing. The infant should still be assessed again at 5 minutes and monitored for any signs of distress or complications.

Choice B is wrong because an Apgar score of 10 at 1 minute does not indicate an infant in severe distress who needs resuscitation. An Apgar score of 0 to 3 would indicate a concerning condition that may require immediate intervention.

Choice C is wrong because an Apgar score of 10 at 1 minute does not predict a future free of neurologic problems. The Apgar score alone cannot be considered as evidence of, or a consequence of, asphyxia or brain injury; it does not predict individual neonatal mortality or neurologic outcome; and it should not be used for that purpose.

Normal ranges for each criterion are as follows:

Appearance (color): pink all over (2 points), body pink but extremities blue (1 point), blue, bluish-gray, or pale all over (0 points)
Pulse (heart rate): greater than 100 beats per minute (2 points), less than 100 beats per minute (1 point), absent (0 points)
Grimace (response to stimulation): cough or sneeze, cry and withdrawal of foot with stimulation (2 points), facial movement/grimace with stimulation (1 point), absent (0 points)
Activity (muscle tone): active movement (2 points), limbs flexed (1 point), limp or floppy (0 points)
Respiration (breathing): good, strong cry (2 points), irregular, weak crying (1 point), absent (0 points)

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Brian playing with his truck next to Kristina playing with her truck. This is because parallel play is when children play side by side with similar toys but do not interact with each other. Parallel play is typical for toddlers and preschoolers.

Choice A is wrong because Kimberly and Amanda sharing clay to each make things is an example of cooperative play, which involves sharing, taking turns, and following

rules. Cooperative play is typical for school-age children.

Choice C is wrong because Adam playing a board game with Kyle, Steven, and Erich is also an example of cooperative play, as they are playing by the same rules and interacting with each other.

Choice D is wrong because Danielle playing with a music box on her mother’s lap is an example of solitary play, which is when a child plays alone and does not seek contact with others. Solitary play is typical for infants.

A. Rubella B. Measles (rubeola) C. Chickenpox (varicella) D. Exanthema subitum (roseola)

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Measles (rubeola) is a communicable disease that is characterized by Koplik’s spots, which are clustered, white lesions on the buccal mucosa opposite the lower molars. They appear two to three days before the measles rash and are pathognomonic for measles.

Choice A is wrong because rubella is a different viral infection that causes a mild rash and fever, but does not have Koplik’s spots.

Choice C is wrong because chickenpox (varicella) is caused by the varicella-zoster virus and produces fluid-filled blisters on the skin, not white spots in the mouth.

Choice D is wrong because exanthema subitum (roseola) is caused by the human herpesvirus 6 or 7 and causes a high fever followed by a pink rash on the trunk and neck, but no oral lesions.

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An Apgar score of 10 at 1 minute after birth would indicate a(n):

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse observes some children in the playroom. Which play situation exhibits the characteristics of parallel play?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The nurse is performing an assessment on a child and notes the presence of Koplik’s spots. In which communicable disease are Koplik’s spots present?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A macrosomic infant is born after a difficult forceps-assisted delivery. After stabilization, the infant is weighed, and the birth weight is 4550 g (9 lbs, 6 ounces). The nurse’s most appropriate action is to:

The nurse is meeting a 5-year-old child for the first time and would like the child to cooperate during a dressing change. The nurse decides to do a simple magic trick using gauze. This should be interpreted as:

As relates to rubella and Rh issues, nurses should be aware that:.

Premature infants who exhibit 5 to 10 seconds of respiratory pauses followed by 10 to 15 seconds of compensatory rapid respiration are:.

The nurse administers vitamin K to the newborn for which reason?

A newborn is jaundiced and receivesphototherapy via ultraviolet bank lights. An appropriate nursing intervention when caring for an infant with hyperbilirubinemia and receiving phototherapy by this method would be to:

Which data would be included in a health history? (Select all that apply.).

Nurses can prevent evaporative heat loss in the newborn by: