An adult who has recurrent episodes of depression tells the nurse that the prescribed antidepressant needs to be discontinued because the client is feeling better after taking the medication for the past couple of weeks and does not like the side effects. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?
Tell the client to discuss the medication side effects with the healthcare provider.
Tell the client that the medication's side effects will most likely dissipate over time.
Inform the client that gradual tapering must be used to discontinue the medication.
Remind the client that feeling better is the therapeutic effect of the medication.
None
None
The Correct Answer is A
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A. Discuss with provider → Correct. The nurse supports client autonomy and ensures safe management. The provider can adjust the dose, switch medications, or address side effects appropriately.
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B. Side effects dissipate → Incorrect. Some antidepressant side effects improve, but others persist. This statement minimizes the client’s concerns and is not therapeutic.
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C. Gradual tapering → Incorrect. While tapering is necessary, the nurse should not instruct discontinuation independently. This is the provider’s role.
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D. Feeling better is therapeutic effect → Incorrect. Although true, this response dismisses the client’s concern about side effects and does not address the request to discontinue.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Assessing and managing pain is a crucial aspect of providing atraumatic care for any post-operative patient, including a child. The child cried throughout the procedure and will likely experience discomfort and pain after the surgery. It is important to assess the child's pain levels regularly using appropriate pain assessment tools and provide appropriate pain management interventions to ensure their comfort and well-being.
While antibiotics may be prescribed if there is a surgical site infection or specific indications for their use, it is not mentioned as a priority in this scenario. The focus is on providing atraumatic care post-operatively, and pain assessment takes precedence.
Occupational therapy, physical therapy, and wound care are important components of the child's overall care, but they may not be the immediate priority post-operatively.
These interventions can be incorporated into the plan of care as needed, but addressing pain is of utmost importance in the immediate post-operative period.
Correct Answer is ["1.4"]
Explanation
Calculate the total dosage required: 44 mcg/kg * 65 kg = 2860 mcg. Convert mcg to mg: 2860 mcg ÷ 1000 = 2.86 mg.
Divide by concentration: 2.86 mg ÷ 2 mg/mL = 1.43 mL.
Considering the vial contains 2 mg/mL, the nurse should administer around 1.43 mL, which can be rounded to 1.4 mL.
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