An infant who weighs 22 pounds receives a prescription for amoxicillin 20 mg/kg/day by mouth in divided doses every 8 hours. The bottle is labeled, "Amoxicillin for Oral Suspension, USP 250 mg per 5 mL." How many mL should the nurse administer with each dose? (Enter numerical value only. If rounding is necessary, round to the nearest tenth.)
The Correct Answer is ["1.3"]
1. Convert the infant's weight from pounds to kilograms. We can use the conversion factor 1 kg
= 2.2 lb. So, 22 lb x (1 kg / 2.2 lb) = 10 kg.
2. Calculate the total daily dose of amoxicillin for the infant. We can use the formula D = d x W, where D is the total daily dose, d is the dose per kg per day, and W is the weight in kg. So, D = 20 mg x 10 kg = 200 mg.
3. Calculate the single dose of amoxicillin for the infant. We can divide the total daily dose by the number of doses per day. Since the prescription is for every 8 hours, there are 3 doses per day. So, 200 mg / 3 = 66.67 mg.
4. Calculate the volume of amoxicillin suspension for the single dose. We can use the ratio of the concentration of the suspension, which is 250 mg per 5 mL. So, 66.67 mg x (5 mL / 250 mg) =
1.33 mL.
5. Round the volume to the nearest tenth= 1.3 mL
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["B","C","E"]
Explanation
A) Incorrect - Red blood cell count (RBC) is not directly relevant to the assessment of infection and its spread.
B) Correct- Core body temperature can be an indicator of systemic infection and needs to be reported to the healthcare provider for assessment and intervention.
C) Correct- Swollen lymph nodes in the groin suggest local and regional lymphatic involvement, indicating possible spread of infection. This finding needs further assessment and intervention.
D) Incorrect - The location of the initial intravenous (IV) site is not directly relevant to the assessment of infection and its spread.
E) Correct- An elevated white blood cell count (WBC) can indicate an inflammatory response to infection. This finding should be reported to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and treatment.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Jaw pain in a client taking alendronate, a bisphosphonate, for postmenopausal osteoporosis may be a sign of a rare but serious side effect called osteonecrosis of the jaw (ONJ). Therefore, the nurse should respond by: Report the client's jaw pain to the healthcare provider.
Jaw pain can be an indication of ONJ, a condition characterized by the death of jawbone tissue. It is important to notify the healthcare provider so that further evaluation and appropriate management can be initiated. The healthcare provider will determine the best course of action, which may include referral to a specialist for further assessment and treatment.
Determining how the client is administering the medication is not the immediate concern in this situation. While it is important to ensure that the client is following proper administration instructions for alendronate, addressing the jaw pain takes precedence.
Advising the client to gargle with warm salt water twice daily may not be sufficient or appropriate for managing jaw pain related to alendronate use. The client needs a comprehensive assessment by the healthcare provider to determine the cause of the jaw pain and provide appropriate interventions.
Confirming that jaw pain is a common symptom of osteoporosis is not accurate. While osteoporosis can lead to bone pain, jaw pain specifically associated with bisphosphonate use is more likely to be related to ONJ and requires further evaluation and management
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