An adult male who is admitted to the mental health clinic is alert and oriented to person, place, time, and situation. His affect is blunted, his mood dysphoric, and the nurse identifies his responses as tangential with a paranoid theme when he states, “I have a chip inside my head that is speaking to me.” Based on these assessment findings, which nursing problem is best to include in this client’s initial plan of care?

Disturbed thought process related to paranoid ideation.

Disturbed sensory perception related to grandiose self-beliefs.

Impaired verbal communications related to psychosis.

Impaired social interaction related to unrealistic thought processes.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A reason: The client’s belief in a chip in his head indicates paranoid ideation, a disturbed thought process in schizophrenia, driven by dopamine dysregulation in the mesolimbic pathway. This nursing problem targets altered reality perception, guiding antipsychotic therapy to reduce delusions, addressing the core cognitive disturbance observed.

Choice B reason: Disturbed sensory perception implies hallucinations, not delusions. The chip belief is a paranoid delusion, not a sensory issue or grandiose belief. Schizophrenia involves cognitive distortions, and “disturbed thought process” better addresses the paranoid ideation, focusing on the neurobiological basis of delusional thinking over sensory misperceptions.

Choice C reason: Impaired verbal communication is inaccurate, as the client is alert and oriented with coherent, though tangential, speech. The chip delusion reflects a thought disorder, not communication deficit. Schizophrenia’s cognitive symptoms prioritize addressing thought processes, driven by neurotransmitter imbalances, over verbal expression issues.

Choice D reason: Impaired social interaction may result from paranoid delusions but is secondary. The primary issue is the disturbed thought process causing the chip delusion, rooted in dopamine dysregulation. Addressing the delusion directly with antipsychotics is more specific, as social issues stem from this core cognitive disturbance.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason: Electrolyte solutions address dehydration but are inappropriate for pale, cool, lethargic symptoms in Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF), indicating a hypercyanotic spell from right-to-left shunting. Urgent medical intervention restores oxygenation, making this inadequate compared to addressing the critical hypoxic episode requiring provider attention.

Choice B reason: Pale, cool, lethargy in TOF signals a hypercyanotic spell, where pulmonary stenosis increases right-to-left shunting, causing cyanosis and hypoxia. Contacting the provider ensures rapid interventions (e.g., oxygen, beta-blockers), preventing cerebral hypoxia or cardiac arrest, addressing the urgent pathophysiological crisis effectively.

Choice C reason: Quiet time by holding or rocking may calm the toddler but does not treat hypoxic spells in TOF, where pale, cool symptoms indicate shunting and hypoxia. Delaying medical intervention risks severe hypoxia, making this less critical than contacting the provider for urgent management.

Choice D reason: A recumbent position worsens TOF’s hypercyanotic spell, increasing venous return and shunting, exacerbating hypoxia. Knee-chest positioning reduces shunting. Contacting the provider is urgent to address pale, cool, lethargic symptoms, ensuring interventions to restore oxygenation, making this position contraindicated.

A. Acetaminophen 650 mg PO PRN. B. Olanzapine 30 mg PO at bedtime. C. Thiamine, USP 100 mg PO daily. D. Ondansetron 8 mg IV PRN.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason: Acetaminophen is hepatotoxic, metabolized by the liver via cytochrome P450 to NAPQI, which depletes glutathione, causing necrosis in hepatitis. A compromised liver from alcohol or viral hepatitis increases toxicity risk, even at standard doses. Contacting the provider ensures safer analgesics, preventing further liver damage in this high-risk client.

Choice B reason: Olanzapine, an antipsychotic, manages schizophrenia by blocking dopamine D2 receptors. It is metabolized by the liver but has low hepatotoxicity risk compared to acetaminophen in hepatitis. No immediate contraindication exists, as it controls psychosis without significantly worsening liver function, making it safe to administer without delay.

Choice C reason: Thiamine (vitamin B1) is essential in hepatitis, particularly with alcohol abuse, preventing Wernicke’s encephalopathy from deficient glucose metabolism. It is liver-safe and beneficial, supporting neurological function without toxicity. Administering thiamine is appropriate, making it unnecessary to contact the provider before implementation.

Choice D reason: Ondansetron, an antiemetic, controls nausea in hepatitis via serotonin 5-HT3 receptor blockade. It is metabolized by the liver but has minimal hepatotoxicity, safe in liver disease. No contraindication exists, as it alleviates symptoms without worsening hepatitis, unlike acetaminophen, which poses significant liver risk.

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Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Following admission for a cardiac catheterization, the nurse is providing discharge teaching to the parents of a 2-year-old toddler with Tetralogy of Fallot. Which instruction should the nurse give the parents if their child becomes pale, cool, and lethargic?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A client with a history of schizophrenia, and drug and alcohol abuse is admitted to the hospital for hepatitis. The nurse should contact the healthcare provider before implementing which prescription?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

While completing an admission assessment, the nurse is unable to palpate the client’s left dorsalis pedis (DP) pulse. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

In assessing tactile fremitus in the client with suspected pneumonia, the nurse should perform which action?

The nurse is teaching a client with newly diagnosed glaucoma about the condition. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

During a home visit, the nurse assesses the skin of a client with eczema who reports that an exacerbation of symptoms has occurred during the last week. Which information is most useful in determining the possible cause of the symptoms?

An adolescent female arrives at the wellness clinic reporting fears that she will hurt herself. The nurse observes scars on both wrists of the client. Which priority action should the nurse implement?

A primigravida at 40 weeks gestation is contracting every 2 minutes, and her cervix is 9 cm dilated and 100% effaced. The fetal heart rate is 120 beats/minute. The client is screaming and her husband is alarmed. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Four hours following surgical repair of a compound fracture of the right ulna, the nurse is unable to palpate the client’s right radial pulse. Which action should the nurse take first?

A client has a prescription for the insertion of a nasogastric tube to low intermittent suction. When inserting the nasogastric tube, the nurse observes an immediate return of “coffee ground” drainage. Which action should the nurse implement?