After completing a neurological assessment, the nurse documents that the client is stuporous. Which of the following describes this level of consciousness?
Minimal movement, verbal responses limited to sounds, awakens briefly only with extreme vigorous stimulation.
Extremely drowsy, minimally responsive, limited ability to follow commands, vigorous stimulation needed to waken.
Alert and oriented x3, sluggish, drowsy, wakes to voice or gentle shaking.
Does not respond to verbal stimuli, does not speak, decorticate/decerebrate posturing in response to pain.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: This is the correct answer because this describes a stupor, which is a state of near-unconsciousness or reduced responsiveness. A stuporous client shows minimal movement and verbal responses and requires extreme vigorous stimulation such as painful stimuli to awaken briefly.
Choice B reason: This is incorrect because this describes obtundation, which is a state of reduced alertness or awareness. An obtunded client is extremely drowsy and minimally responsive and requires vigorous stimulation such as shaking or shouting to wake.
Choice C reason: This is incorrect because this describes lethargy, which is a state of decreased energy or activity. A lethargic client is alert and oriented x3 (to person, place, and time), but sluggish and drowsy, and wakes to voice or gentle shaking.
Choice D reason: This is incorrect because this describes a coma, which is a state of deep unconsciousness or unresponsiveness. A comatose client does not respond to verbal stimuli or speak and shows abnormal posturing in response to pain, such as decorticate (flexion of arms and extension of legs) or decerebrate (extension of arms and legs).
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A Reason: This is the correct choice because a complete spinal cord injury is a condition where there is no motor or sensory function below the level of injury. The client will have paralysis of all four limbs (quadriplegia) and loss of bladder, bowel, and sexual function. The client will also have impaired thermoregulation, breathing, and blood pressure. The client will need 24-hour a day care to assist with mobility, hygiene, elimination, nutrition, and prevention of complications.
Choice B) Reason: This is incorrect because a client who is able to assist with transfer and perform self-care has a partial spinal cord injury, not a complete one. A partial spinal cord injury is a condition where there is some motor or sensory function below the level of injury. The degree of impairment depends on the extent and location of the damage.
Choice C Reason: This is incorrect because a client who is able to roll over independently has a lower spinal cord injury, not a complete one. A lower spinal cord injury is a condition where there is damage to the lumbar or sacral segments of the spinal cord. The client will have paralysis of the lower limbs (paraplegia) and some loss of bladder, bowel, and sexual function. The client will still have some control over the upper limbs and trunk.
Choice D Reason: This is incorrect because a client who is able to drive an electric wheelchair has an upper spinal cord injury, not a complete one. An upper spinal cord injury is a condition where there is damage to the cervical or thoracic segments of the spinal cord. The client will have paralysis of all four limbs (quadriplegia) and loss of bladder, bowel, and sexual function. However, the client may still have some movement or sensation in the shoulders, arms, or hands.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: This is the correct answer because the Amsler grid test is performed to diagnose macular degeneration. The Amsler grid is a pattern of straight lines with a dot in the center. The client is asked to look at the dot and report any distortions or missing areas in the grid. This can indicate damage to the macula, which is the central part of the retina that provides sharp vision.
Choice B reason: This is incorrect because the Snellen chart test is not performed to diagnose macular degeneration. The Snellen chart is a chart of letters of different sizes that are read from a distance. The client is asked to read the smallest line they can see clearly. This can indicate visual acuity or sharpness of vision, but not macular degeneration.
Choice C reason: This is incorrect because the intraocular pressure test is not performed to diagnose macular degeneration. The intraocular pressure test measures the pressure inside the eye using a device called a tonometer. The client may feel a puff of air or a gentle touch on their eye. This can indicate glaucoma, which is a condition where increased pressure damages the optic nerve, but not macular degeneration.
Choice D reason: This is incorrect because the refraction test is not performed to diagnose macular degeneration. The refraction test measures how well the eye bends light rays using a device called a phoropter. The client looks through different lenses and reports which ones make their vision clearer. This can indicate refractive errors such as nearsightedness, farsightedness, or astigmatism, but not macular degeneration.
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