After completing a neurological assessment, the nurse documents that the client is stuporous. Which of the following describes this level of consciousness?

Minimal movement, verbal responses limited to sounds, awakens briefly only with extreme vigorous stimulation.

Extremely drowsy, minimally responsive, limited ability to follow commands, vigorous stimulation needed to waken.

Alert and oriented x3, sluggish, drowsy, wakes to voice or gentle shaking.

Does not respond to verbal stimuli, does not speak, decorticate/decerebrate posturing in response to pain.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A reason: This is the correct answer because this describes a stupor, which is a state of near-unconsciousness or reduced responsiveness. A stuporous client shows minimal movement and verbal responses and requires extreme vigorous stimulation such as painful stimuli to awaken briefly.

Choice B reason: This is incorrect because this describes obtundation, which is a state of reduced alertness or awareness. An obtunded client is extremely drowsy and minimally responsive and requires vigorous stimulation such as shaking or shouting to wake.

Choice C reason: This is incorrect because this describes lethargy, which is a state of decreased energy or activity. A lethargic client is alert and oriented x3 (to person, place, and time), but sluggish and drowsy, and wakes to voice or gentle shaking.

Choice D reason: This is incorrect because this describes a coma, which is a state of deep unconsciousness or unresponsiveness. A comatose client does not respond to verbal stimuli or speak and shows abnormal posturing in response to pain, such as decorticate (flexion of arms and extension of legs) or decerebrate (extension of arms and legs).

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: This is incorrect because education about mastoidectomy is not relevant for a client with an upper respiratory infection. Mastoidectomy is a surgical procedure that removes part or all of the mastoid bone behind the ear, which can become infected or inflamed due to chronic or recurrent middle ear infections. The nurse should assess the client's ear for signs of mastoiditis, such as swelling, tenderness, or redness behind the ear, but mastoidectomy is not a common or first-line treatment for upper respiratory infection.
Choice B reason: This is incorrect because a referral for a hearing test is not necessary for a client with an upper respiratory infection. Hearing test is a diagnostic tool that measures how well a person can hear different sounds at different frequencies and intensities. The nurse should ask the client about any changes in hearing or tinnitus, which are possible complications of upper respiratory infection, but a hearing test is not a routine or urgent intervention for this condition.
Choice C reason: This is correct because education on the administration of oral antibiotics can help treat an upper respiratory infection. Antibiotics are drugs that kill or inhibit bacteria that cause infections. Upper respiratory infections can be caused by various pathogens, such as viruses, bacteria, or fungi, but bacterial infections are more likely to cause fever, otalgia, or purulent nasal drainage. The nurse should instruct the client on how to take antibiotics as prescribed, such as dosage, frequency, duration, side effects, and interactions.
Choice D reason: This is incorrect because a prescription for an antifungal cream is not appropriate for a client

A. During a seizure, the client lost bladder control B. During a seizure, the client's eyes remained fixed and dilated C. During a seizure, the client made involuntary groaning sounds D. During a seizure, the client had involuntary facial movements, such as lip-smacking

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A Reason: This choice is incorrect. Losing bladder control is not a feature of complex partial seizures, but rather of generalized tonic-clonic seizures. Complex partial seizures are a type of focal seizures that affect a specific area of the brain and cause impaired awareness and automatisms. Automatisms are repetitive and involuntary movements or behaviors that occur during a seizure.

Choice B Reason: This choice is incorrect. Having fixed and dilated eyes is not a feature of complex partial seizures, but rather of brain death or severe brain injury. Complex partial seizures do not affect the pupils or eye movements, but rather the level of consciousness and motor activity.

Choice C Reason: This choice is incorrect. Making involuntary groaning sounds is not a feature of complex partial seizures, but rather of simple partial seizures. Simple partial seizures are a type of focal seizures that affect a specific area of the brain and do not impair awareness or cause automatisms. They can cause sensory, motor, or psychic symptoms, such as auditory or visual hallucinations, tingling sensations, or emotional changes.

Choice D Reason: This is the correct choice. Having involuntary facial movements, such as lip-smacking, is a feature of complex partial seizures. Complex partial seizures often originate from the temporal lobe of the brain, which is involved in memory, language, and emotion. They can cause automatisms that affect the mouth, face, or hands, such as chewing, swallowing, picking, or fidgeting.

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After completing a neurological assessment, the nurse documents that the client is stuporous. Which of the following describes this level of consciousness?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client arrives with an upper respiratory infection and complains of otalgia, malaise, and nasal drainage. The client's temperature is 100.7 F. Which of the following will the nurse anticipate providing to the client?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A nurse reviewing a client's chart reads that the client was observed having a complex partial seizure with automatisms of the face. What does the nurse understand this to mean?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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