A nurse is admitting a client who has a partial hearing loss. Which of the following is the priority action by the nurse?
Stand directly in front of the client.
Rephrase statements the client does not hear.
Speak using his usual tone of voice.
Determine if the client uses hearing aids.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A Reason: This is incorrect because standing directly in front of the client is not the priority action by the nurse when admitting a client who has a partial hearing loss. Standing directly in front of the client can enhance communication, but it is not as important as assessing the client's hearing status and needs.
Choice B Reason: This is incorrect because rephrasing statements the client does not hear is not the priority action by the nurse when admitting a client who has a partial hearing loss. Rephrasing statements can improve understanding, but it is not as essential as evaluating the client's hearing level and preferences.
Choice C Reason: This is incorrect because speaking using his usual tone of voice is not the priority action by the nurse when admitting a client who has a partial hearing loss. Speaking using his usual tone of voice may or may not be appropriate, depending on the client's hearing ability and comfort. The nurse should adjust his tone of voice based on the client's feedback and response.
Choice D Reason: This is the correct choice because determining if the client uses hearing aids is the priority action by the nurse when admitting a client who has a partial hearing loss. Hearing aids are devices that amplify sound and improve hearing for people with hearing loss. The nurse should determine if the client uses hearing aids, and if so, check their function, fit, and battery life. The nurse should also ask about any other assistive devices or strategies that the client uses to communicate effectively.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A Reason: This choice is incorrect. Losing bladder control is not a feature of complex partial seizures, but rather of generalized tonic-clonic seizures. Complex partial seizures are a type of focal seizures that affect a specific area of the brain and cause impaired awareness and automatisms. Automatisms are repetitive and involuntary movements or behaviors that occur during a seizure.
Choice B Reason: This choice is incorrect. Having fixed and dilated eyes is not a feature of complex partial seizures, but rather of brain death or severe brain injury. Complex partial seizures do not affect the pupils or eye movements, but rather the level of consciousness and motor activity.
Choice C Reason: This choice is incorrect. Making involuntary groaning sounds is not a feature of complex partial seizures, but rather of simple partial seizures. Simple partial seizures are a type of focal seizures that affect a specific area of the brain and do not impair awareness or cause automatisms. They can cause sensory, motor, or psychic symptoms, such as auditory or visual hallucinations, tingling sensations, or emotional changes.
Choice D Reason: This is the correct choice. Having involuntary facial movements, such as lip-smacking, is a feature of complex partial seizures. Complex partial seizures often originate from the temporal lobe of the brain, which is involved in memory, language, and emotion. They can cause automatisms that affect the mouth, face, or hands, such as chewing, swallowing, picking, or fidgeting.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: This is incorrect because a drop in heart rate from 74 to 68/min is not a manifestation that requires immediate reporting to the provider. A mild decrease in heart rate can be normal or due to other factors such as medication, sleep, or relaxation. It does not indicate a worsening of brain injury or increased intracranial pressure.
Choice B reason: This is the correct answer because a change in the Glasgow Coma Scale score from 14 to 10 is a manifestation that requires immediate reporting to the provider. The Glasgow Coma Scale is a tool that measures the level of consciousness based on eye-opening, verbal response, and motor responses. A score of 14 indicates mild impairment, while a score of 10 indicates moderate impairment. A decrease in score can indicate deterioration of neurological status and increased intracranial pressure, which can be life-threatening.
Choice C reason: This is incorrect because the headache is not a manifestation that requires immediate reporting to
the provider. Headache is a common symptom of mild TBI and can be managed with analgesics, rest, and hydration. It does not indicate a worsening of brain injury or increased intracranial pressure unless it is severe, persistent, or accompanied by other signs such as vomiting, confusion, or seizures.
Choice D reason: This is incorrect because diplopia is not a manifestation that requires immediate reporting to
the provider. Diplopia means double vision and can be caused by damage to cranial nerves or eye muscles due to TBI. It can be treated with eye patches, glasses, or surgery. It does not indicate a worsening of brain injury or increased intracranial pressure unless it is associated with other symptoms such as blurred vision, loss of vision, or eye pain.
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