After change of shift, the nurse has the following patients on her assignment. Which one should she see first?
A 50-year-old with COPD and a Spo2 of 90%
A 72-year-old with pneumonia who needs his antibiotic
A 37-year-old with asthma who reported that he is still having shortness of breath after using his inhaler
A68-year-old on a CPAP who needs a sputum specimen sent to the lab
The Correct Answer is C
C. Persistent shortness of breath after using an inhaler could indicate an inadequate response to treatment or worsening asthma exacerbation. The nurse should therefore see this patient first.
A. In COPD patients pulse oximetry oxygen saturations of more than 90% are acceptable. In the treatment of exacerbations of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), oxygen should be titrated to achieve a target oxygen saturation range of 88-92%. This results in a greater than twofold reduction in mortality, compared with the routine administration of high-concentration oxygen therapy.
B. Administering antibiotics can be prioritized, but it may not require immediate attention compared to addressing acute respiratory distress or hypoxemia.
D. Collecting a sputum specimen for laboratory analysis is important for diagnosing and managing respiratory infections, but it may not be as time-sensitive as addressing acute respiratory distress or hypoxemia.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Diabetes can lead to damage of blood vessels throughout the body, both large and small. Complications can affect various organs and systems, including the heart, kidneys, eyes, and nerves. Damage to both large vessels (macrovascular complications) and tiny vessels (microvascular complications) contributes to the diverse range of complications associated with diabetes.
B. Both type 1 and type 2 diabetes increase the risk of long-term complications, but the specific risks and patterns of complications may differ between the two types. While individuals with type 1 diabetes may face challenges in achieving tight glycemic control due to the complete absence of endogenous insulin production, tight control can significantly reduce the risk of complications in both type 1 and type 2 diabetes.
C. Lower HbA1c levels indicate better overall glycemic control and are associated with reduced risk of long-term complications. However, achieving tight glycemic control should be balanced with the risk of hypoglycemia and individual patient factors.
D. Hypoglycemia can also lead to increased risk of cardiovascular events and mortality in individuals with diabetes. Therefore, it is important to balance glycemic control to minimize the risk of hypoglycemia while also reducing the risk of hyperglycemia-related complications.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
B. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), including ibuprofen, are known to increase the risk of peptic ulcer formation by disrupting the protective mucosal barrier of the stomach and duodenum.
Long-term or frequent use of NSAIDs can lead to mucosal damage and ulceration.
A. Consuming spicy foods frequently may irritate the lining of the stomach and increase the risk of developing peptic ulcers. However, the number of consumed meals is not specific to the risl of peptic ulcer formation.
C. Green tea consumption is generally not considered a significant risk factor for peptic ulcers. In fact, some studies suggest that compounds found in green tea may have protective effects against the development of peptic ulcers and may help reduce the risk of H. pylori infection, a common cause of ulcers.
D. Bulimia, an eating disorder characterized by binge eating followed by purging behaviors such as vomiting, is a risk factor for peptic ulcers. The repeated exposure of stomach acid to the esophagus and stomach lining due to vomiting can lead to inflammation and ulceration of the gastrointestinal tract.
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