After change-of-shift report, which patient would the nurse assess first?
A 40-yr-old with a pleural effusion who reports chest discomfort
A 72-yr-old with cor pulmonale who has 4+ bilateral edema in his legs and feet
A 64-yr-old with lung cancer and tracheal deviation after subclavian catheter insertion
A 28-yr-old with a history of a lung transplant 1 month ago and a fever of 101°F (38.3°C)
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: Pleural effusion with chest discomfort suggests fluid buildup, causing pain but not immediate airway compromise. It’s stable compared to tracheal deviation, prioritizing respiratory distress over this less acute issue.
Choice B reason: Cor pulmonale with 4+ edema indicates chronic right heart failure, a serious but slower process. It’s less urgent than acute airway obstruction, as it’s manageable with diuretics, not an immediate threat.
Choice C reason: Tracheal deviation post-catheter insertion signals tension pneumothorax, a life-threatening emergency. It compresses airways and vessels, requiring immediate assessment and intervention to restore breathing and circulation.
Choice D reason: Fever of 101°F post-lung transplant suggests infection or rejection, critical but not airway-immediate. It’s urgent, yet tracheal deviation’s acute respiratory collapse takes precedence over this systemic concern.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Daily alcohol use may amplify propranolol’s CNS depression, but it’s not a contraindication. It warrants monitoring for sedation, yet hypertension treatment proceeds, as no direct physiologic conflict exists with beta-blockade.
Choice B reason: Asthma contraindicates propranolol, a non-selective beta-blocker, as it blocks β2 receptors, causing bronchoconstriction. This risks severe airway obstruction in asthmatics, prompting consultation for a cardioselective alternative like atenolol.
Choice C reason: Peptic ulcer disease isn’t affected by propranolol directly; beta-blockers don’t alter gastric acid. It’s not a contraindication, though stress-related hypertension management might consider other factors, not this drug.
Choice D reason: Post-MI, propranolol reduces myocardial demand, aiding recovery. It’s beneficial, not contraindicated, lowering reinfarction risk via β1 blockade, so no consultation is needed unless acute decompensation occurs.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Restricting fluids to 2 liters per day increases blood viscosity in sickle cell disease, promoting sickling and vaso-occlusion. Adequate hydration is critical to dilute hemoglobin S, so this instruction contradicts evidence-based management for crisis prevention.
Choice B reason: Iron supplements are contraindicated in sickle cell disease unless anemia is iron-deficient, which is rare. Most patients have normal or high iron from hemolysis, so a multivitamin with iron risks overload and organ damage.
Choice C reason: Avoiding caffeine lacks evidence in sickle cell crisis prevention; it’s not a trigger. Moderate intake doesn’t dehydrate significantly or affect sickling, making this instruction irrelevant to discharge teaching for this condition.
Choice D reason: Limiting crowd exposure reduces infection risk, a common sickle cell crisis trigger. Infections cause inflammation and hypoxia, promoting sickling, so this instruction aligns with preventing complications and maintaining patient stability post-discharge.
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