A young boy is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of new onset type I diabetes mellitus. As the registered nurse prepares to administer insulin, the child's mother asks why he can't just "take a pill. Which response, by the nurse, explains the rationale for an injection of insulin?
His body does not produce any insulin so he must receive insulin injections
"The pills are not as effective as the insulin injections."
"He will only be on insulin injections for a short while, then he can take a pill
"He can stop the insulin injections once his body begins to make insulin again.
The Correct Answer is A
A. His body does not produce any insulin so he must receive insulin injections: Type I diabetes is characterized by the destruction of pancreatic beta cells, resulting in little to no insulin production. Therefore, insulin must be administered via injection to replace the insulin the body cannot produce.
B. The pills are not as effective as the insulin injections: While this might be partially true for Type I diabetes, it is not the complete answer. Oral medications are generally not effective in Type I diabetes because they stimulate the pancreas to produce insulin, which is not possible in these patients.
C. He will only be on insulin injections for a short while, then he can take a pill: This is incorrect. Type I diabetes requires lifelong insulin therapy.
D. He can stop the insulin injections once his body begins to make insulin again: This is incorrect as Type I diabetes is a permanent condition where the body cannot produce insulin.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Obesity, age over 40, and female gender: While obesity and age can be risk factors for GERD, gender alone is not a significant factor. Excessive alcohol consumption, as indicated in option D, is a stronger link to GERD.
B. Accelerated gastric emptying: This is incorrect. GERD is more commonly associated with delayed gastric emptying or increased acid production rather than accelerated gastric emptying.
C. Incompetent rectal sphincter: This is incorrect. GERD is associated with an incompetent lower esophageal sphincter, not the rectal sphincter.
D. Drinking 12 cans of beer per day: Excessive alcohol consumption can relax the lower esophageal sphincter and increase the risk of GERD by allowing stomach acid to flow back into the esophagus.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. An increased serum calcitonin level: Calcitonin is involved in lowering blood calcium levels, so increased levels would not indicate hypercalcemia but rather a compensatory mechanism to lower calcium.
B. An increased number of osteocytes: Osteocytes are bone cells, and their number is not a direct indicator of hypercalcemia. Osteoclasts and osteoblasts are more relevant to bone metabolism.
C. Elevated plasma magnesium levels: Elevated magnesium levels are not specifically indicative of hypercalcemia and can be related to other conditions.
D. An increased parathyroid hormone (PTH) level: Hypercalcemia can be associated with increased PTH levels, particularly in primary hyperparathyroidism. Elevated PTH can lead to increased calcium release from bones.
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