A young boy is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of new onset type I diabetes mellitus. As the registered nurse prepares to administer insulin, the child's mother asks why he can't just "take a pill. Which response, by the nurse, explains the rationale for an injection of insulin?
His body does not produce any insulin so he must receive insulin injections
"The pills are not as effective as the insulin injections."
"He will only be on insulin injections for a short while, then he can take a pill
"He can stop the insulin injections once his body begins to make insulin again.
The Correct Answer is A
A. His body does not produce any insulin so he must receive insulin injections: Type I diabetes is characterized by the destruction of pancreatic beta cells, resulting in little to no insulin production. Therefore, insulin must be administered via injection to replace the insulin the body cannot produce.
B. The pills are not as effective as the insulin injections: While this might be partially true for Type I diabetes, it is not the complete answer. Oral medications are generally not effective in Type I diabetes because they stimulate the pancreas to produce insulin, which is not possible in these patients.
C. He will only be on insulin injections for a short while, then he can take a pill: This is incorrect. Type I diabetes requires lifelong insulin therapy.
D. He can stop the insulin injections once his body begins to make insulin again: This is incorrect as Type I diabetes is a permanent condition where the body cannot produce insulin.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Low T4, High TSH: This pattern is seen in primary hypothyroidism, where the thyroid gland is underactive.
B. Low T4, high calcitonin: This choice is unrelated to the typical lab findings in Graves' disease. Calcitonin levels are not commonly assessed in thyroid disorders like Graves' disease.
C. High PSA and estrogen levels: PSA (Prostate-Specific Antigen) and estrogen levels are unrelated to Graves' disease, which is an autoimmune hyperthyroid condition.
D. High T4, low TSH: Graves' disease is characterized by hyperthyroidism, where T4 (thyroxine) levels are elevated, and TSH (Thyroid-Stimulating Hormone) levels are suppressed due to the negative feedback mechanism.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Adherence to a low-fat diet: The patient likely experienced a transient ischemic attack (TIA), which is a warning sign for future strokes. A low-fat diet is recommended to help manage cholesterol and reduce the risk of atherosclerosis and stroke.
B. The administration of clot-busting drugs: Clot-busting drugs (thrombolytics) are used in the acute management of a stroke, but this patient’s symptoms resolved spontaneously, and the focus is on prevention.
C. Reporting any signs of heat or cold intolerance: This is unrelated to the prevention of stroke or management after a TIA.
D. Avoiding red wine and chocolate: While moderation in alcohol and certain foods is generally advised for overall health, this specific recommendation does not address the primary concern of preventing future cerebrovascular events.
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