A woman who delivered a normal newborn 24 hours ago reports, "I seem to be urinating every hour or so. Is that OK?" Which action should the practical nurse (PN) implement?
Catheterize the client for residual urine volume
Measure the next voiding, then palpate the client's bladder
Evaluate for normal involution, then massage the fundus
Obtain a specimen for urine culture and sensitivity
The Correct Answer is B
- Urinary output is an important indicator of fluid balance and kidney function. After delivery, a woman may experience increased urinary output due to the loss of excess fluid that was retained during pregnancy and the diuretic effect of oxytocin, which is released during breastfeeding. This is a normal and expected finding in the postpartum period.
- However, increased urinary output may also be a sign of urinary retention, which is the inability to empty the bladder completely. Urinary retention can occur due to trauma to the bladder or urethra during delivery, swelling or hematoma of the perineum, epidural anesthesia, or decreased bladder sensation.Urinary retention can lead to complications such as infection, bladder distension, or postpartum hemorrhage.
- Therefore, when a woman who delivered a normal newborn 24 hours ago reports that she seems to be urinating every hour or so, the practical nurse (PN) should measure the next voiding, then palpate the client's bladder. This will help to assess the amount and quality of urine and the presence or absence of bladder distension. A normal urine output is about 30 ml per hour, and a normal bladder should feel soft and empty after voiding. If the urine output is low or high, or if the bladder feels firm or full after voiding, the PN should report these findings to the primary healthcare provider for further evaluation and intervention.
Therefore, option B is the correct answer, while options A, C, and D are incorrect.
Option A is incorrect because catheterizing the client for residual urine volume is an invasive procedure that should only be done if indicated by the primary healthcare provider.
Option C is incorrect because evaluating for normal involution and massaging the fundus are related to uterine function, not urinary function.
Option D is incorrect because obtaining a specimen for urine culture and sensitivity is not necessary unless there are signs of infection, such as fever, dysuria, or foul-smelling urine.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. This choice is incorrect because verapamil and TPN do not have a significant food and medication interaction. Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker that can lower blood pressure and heart rate, while TPN is a form of intravenous nutrition that provides calories, electrolytes, vitamins, and minerals. The nurse should monitor the client's vital signs and blood glucose levels, but there is no need to intervene to prevent an interaction.
B. This choice is incorrect because phenytoin and milkshakes do not have a significant food and medication interaction. Phenytoin is an anticonvulsant that can decrease the absorption of some vitamins, such as folic acid and vitamin D, but milkshakes are not a major source of these nutrients. The nurse should encourage the client to eat a balanced diet and take supplements as prescribed, but there is no need to intervene to prevent an interaction.
C. This choice is incorrect because potassium-rich foods and furosemide do not have a significant food and medication interaction. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause hypokalemia, or low potassium levels, but potassium-rich foods can help prevent this complication. The nurse should monitor the client's electrolyte levels and fluid balance, but there is no need to intervene to prevent an interaction.
D. This choice is correct because MAOIs and cheeseburgers have a significant food and medication interaction. MAOIs are antidepressants that can cause hypertensive crisis, or dangerously high blood pressure, if the client consumes foods that contain tyramine, such as aged cheeses, cured meats, fermented foods, and beer. The nurse should intervene to prevent the client from eating a cheeseburger and educate the client about avoiding tyramine-containing foods while taking MAOIs.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason
While thinning of secretions can be a positive sign, it's not always visible. A decrease in peak inspiratory pressure is a more objective indicator of improved airway patency.
Choice B reason.
Peak inspiratory pressure is the maximum pressure required to push air into the lungs. If suctioning is effective, it will remove secretions and reduce airway resistance, leading to a decrease in peak inspiratory pressure.
Choice C reason:
While a productive cough can indicate that secretions are being moved, it doesn't directly measure the effectiveness of suctioning.
Choice D reason:
Flattening of the artificial airway cuff: Flattening of the artificial airway cuff is not a relevant indicator of the effectiveness of suctioning. The cuff of an endotracheal tube is inflated to prevent air leaks around the tube and to maintain proper ventilation. It is not directly related to the effectiveness of suctioning.
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