A vial contains 1.5 g of ceftriaxone. The final concentration after adding diluent should be 600 mg/3 mL. How much diluent should a nurse add to achieve this concentration?
0.0075 mL
1.2 mL
7.5 mL
1800 mL
The Correct Answer is C
To calculate the amount of diluent that should be added, we need to first calculate the volume of the final solution. .
The final concentration of ceftriaxone should be 600 mg/3 mL, which is the same as 200 mg/mL. .
If we have 1.5 g (or 1500 mg) of ceftriaxone, we can divide this by the desired concentration to get the total volume of the final solution:.
1500 mg ÷ 200 mg/mL = 7.5 mL.
So, the total volume of the final solution should be 7.5 mL. .
To calculate the amount of diluent needed, we need to subtract the volume of the ceftriaxone from the total volume of the final solution:.
7.5 mL - 0.00 mL = 7.5 mL.
Therefore, a nurse should add 7.5 mL of diluent to the vial containing 1.5 g of ceftriaxone to achieve a final concentration of 600 mg/3 mL.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
According to the web, the abdomen is the preferred site for insulin injection because insulin is absorbed more quickly and predictably there.
This helps to maintain a stable blood glucose level and avoid hypoglycemia or hyperglycemia.
The other choices are not answers because:
Choice A (it is the least painful location for this injection) is incorrect because pain depends on various factors, such as needle size, injection technique, and individual sensitivity. The abdomen may not be the least painful location for everyone.
Choice B (it causes less bruising at the site) is incorrect because bruising can occur at any injection site if the needle damages a blood vessel. The abdomen does not have less blood vessels than other sites.
Choice C (there are fewer insulin side effects when given in this site) is incorrect because insulin side effects are not related to the injection site, but to the dose, type, and quality of insulin. The abdomen does not reduce the risk of side effects such as allergic reactions, weight gain, or low blood sugar.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The patient is ordered to receive 5 mg of Lopressor over 60 seconds, which is equivalent to 1 minute. The concentration of Lopressor is 1 mg/1 mL, which means there is 1 mg of Lopressor in 1 mL of solution. To calculate how many milliliters per minute the nurse should administer, we can use the following formula:
5 mg / 1 mg per 1 mL = X mL X = 5 mL per minute.
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