Why is subcutaneous (SC) insulin usually administered into the abdomen as the preferred site?
It is the least painful location for this injection.
It causes less bruising at the site.
There are fewer insulin side effects when given in this site.
There is steady absorption of insulin from this site.
The Correct Answer is D
According to the web, the abdomen is the preferred site for insulin injection because insulin is absorbed more quickly and predictably there.
This helps to maintain a stable blood glucose level and avoid hypoglycemia or hyperglycemia.
The other choices are not answers because:
Choice A (it is the least painful location for this injection) is incorrect because pain depends on various factors, such as needle size, injection technique, and individual sensitivity. The abdomen may not be the least painful location for everyone.
Choice B (it causes less bruising at the site) is incorrect because bruising can occur at any injection site if the needle damages a blood vessel. The abdomen does not have less blood vessels than other sites.
Choice C (there are fewer insulin side effects when given in this site) is incorrect because insulin side effects are not related to the injection site, but to the dose, type, and quality of insulin. The abdomen does not reduce the risk of side effects such as allergic reactions, weight gain, or low blood sugar.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
To calculate the amount of diluent that should be added, we need to first calculate the volume of the final solution. .
The final concentration of ceftriaxone should be 600 mg/3 mL, which is the same as 200 mg/mL. .
If we have 1.5 g (or 1500 mg) of ceftriaxone, we can divide this by the desired concentration to get the total volume of the final solution:.
1500 mg ÷ 200 mg/mL = 7.5 mL.
So, the total volume of the final solution should be 7.5 mL. .
To calculate the amount of diluent needed, we need to subtract the volume of the ceftriaxone from the total volume of the final solution:.
7.5 mL - 0.00 mL = 7.5 mL.
Therefore, a nurse should add 7.5 mL of diluent to the vial containing 1.5 g of ceftriaxone to achieve a final concentration of 600 mg/3 mL.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
To calculate the amount of drug per minute, divide the total dose by the infusion time in minutes:
5 mg ÷ 2 minutes = 2.5 mg/minute
The patient should receive 2.5 mg of Lopressor per minute for 2 minutes to get a total dose of 5 mg.
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