A healthcare provider orders atropine sulfate 400 mcg IM as a preoperative medication. The medication is provided as 0.1 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer?
2 mL
3 mL
4 mL
5 mL
The Correct Answer is C
The ordered dose is 400 mcg, which is equal to 0.4 mg..
The medication is provided as 0.1 mg/mL, so to administer 0.4 mg, the nurse needs to give:.
0.4 mg ÷ 0.1 mg/mL = 4 mL.
Therefore, the nurse should administer 4 mL of atropine sulfate.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
We can use the formula for calculating infusion time:. Infusion time = Total volume / Infusion rate.
First, we need to convert the volume of the fluid from liters to milliliters:.
0.75 L = 750 mL.
Next, we can plug in the values we have:. Infusion time = 750 mL / 120 mL/hr.
Infusion time = 6.25 hours.
Since the infusion was started at 9:00 a.m., we can add 6.25 hours to determine when the infusion will be completed:.
9:00 a.m. + 6.25 hours = 3:15 p.m..
Therefore, the infusion will be completed at 3:15 p.m.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
To calculate the amount of diluent that should be added, we need to first calculate the volume of the final solution. .
The final concentration of ceftriaxone should be 600 mg/3 mL, which is the same as 200 mg/mL. .
If we have 1.5 g (or 1500 mg) of ceftriaxone, we can divide this by the desired concentration to get the total volume of the final solution:.
1500 mg ÷ 200 mg/mL = 7.5 mL.
So, the total volume of the final solution should be 7.5 mL. .
To calculate the amount of diluent needed, we need to subtract the volume of the ceftriaxone from the total volume of the final solution:.
7.5 mL - 0.00 mL = 7.5 mL.
Therefore, a nurse should add 7.5 mL of diluent to the vial containing 1.5 g of ceftriaxone to achieve a final concentration of 600 mg/3 mL.
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