A staff nurse is working with a client on the medical unit.
The health care provider prescribes aspirin for the client to treat headache.
The client forgets and drinks two bottles of beer, which caused GI bleeding.
How should the nurse analyze this drug-drug interaction?
Antagonistic reaction.
Synergistic reaction.
Additive reaction.
Neutral reaction.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
Antagonistic reactions occur when one drug interferes with the action of another, decreasing its effectiveness. This is not applicable in this case as aspirin and alcohol together increase the risk of bleeding rather than opposing each other's actions.
Choice B rationale
Synergistic reactions happen when two drugs enhance each other's effects. Aspirin and alcohol together can indeed increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding, but this is not referred to as a synergistic reaction.
Choice C rationale
Additive reactions occur when two drugs with similar effects add up to a greater effect. Aspirin and alcohol both increase the risk of bleeding, and their combined effect leads to gastrointestinal bleeding.
Choice D rationale
Neutral reactions imply that the drugs do not interact and have no combined effect, which is incorrect here as the combination of aspirin and alcohol leads to an increased risk of GI bleeding.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Insulin is a medication used to manage blood sugar levels in clients with diabetes. It is not appropriate for the management of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) as it has no anticoagulant properties.
Choice B rationale
Warfarin (Coumadin) is an oral anticoagulant commonly prescribed for the long-term management of DVT. It is suitable for clients who are unable to self-administer injections, making it a practical option for discharge.
Choice C rationale
Heparin is an anticoagulant that is typically administered via injection or IV. For clients unable to self-inject at home, it is not the best choice for managing DVT after discharge.
Choice D rationale
Enoxaparin (Lovenox) is a low-molecular-weight heparin that is also administered via injection. For clients unable to perform self-injections, this medication would not be the most appropriate option for home management of DVT.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that acts on the collecting ducts and late distal tubules but not on the loop of Henle.
Choice B rationale
Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic that works on the distal convoluted tubule, not the loop of Henle.
Choice C rationale
Furosemide is a loop diuretic that acts on the ascending limb of the loop of Henle to inhibit sodium and chloride reabsorption, leading to increased urine output.
Choice D rationale
Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that primarily acts on the proximal tubule and the descending limb of the loop of Henle.
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