A staff nurse has been tardy for morning shift assignments for the past three days and provides no explanation for arriving late. Which approach is best for the nurse manager to use when addressing this staff member's tardiness?

Caution the nurse that one more tardiness will result in probational employment.

Offer to switch the nurse's shift assignments to afternoons or evenings.

Stress the expectation that the nurse will arrive on time for all scheduled shifts.

Have the nurse sign a copy of the hospital employee attendance policy.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A Reason: Cautioning the nurse that one more tardiness will result in probational employment is not the best approach because it is too punitive and does not address the underlying cause of the tardiness. The nurse manager should first try to understand why the nurse is late and offer support or guidance if needed.

Choice B Reason: Offering to switch the nurse's shift assignments to afternoons or evenings is not the best approach because it may not solve the problem of tardiness and may create resentment among other staff members who have to adjust their schedules. The nurse manager should respect the nurse's preferences and availability but also hold the nurse accountable for fulfilling their responsibilities.

Choice C Reason: This is the best approach because it communicates clearly and respectfully what is expected of the nurse and why it is important for them to be punctual. The nurse manager should also provide feedback and recognition when the nurse improves their attendance.

Choice D reason: Having the nurse sign a copy of the hospital employee attendance policy is not the best approach because it may imply that the nurse is unaware or indifferent to the policy. The nurse manager should assume that the nurse knows and agrees with the policy, but may need some assistance or motivation to follow it.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A Reason: Beginning initial sterile wound care for surgical clients is a nursing intervention that requires clinical judgment and cannot be delegated to the PN. The PN may assist with wound care after the initial dressing change, but the RN is responsible for assessing the wound and initiating the plan of care.

Choice B Reason: Validating prescribed intravenous flow rates is a routine task that does not require clinical judgment and can be delegated to the PN. The PN has the knowledge and skill to check the IV orders, calculate the drip rate, and monitor the infusion.

Choice C Reason: Determining the need for urinary catheterizations is a nursing assessment that requires clinical judgment and cannot be delegated to the PN. The PN may perform urinary catheterizations as ordered by the physician, but the RN is responsible for evaluating the indication, risk, and benefit of the procedure.

Choice D Reason: Receiving a postoperative client and conducting the assessment is a nursing intervention that requires clinical judgment and cannot be delegated to the PN. The RN is responsible for receiving reports from the operating room, assessing the client's status, identifying potential complications, and initiating the plan of care.

A. The brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) assay for a client with shortness of breath after a myocardial infarction (MI) increases to 1000 pg/mL (1000 ng/L). B. The international normalized ratio (INR) for a client who is receiving warfarin therapy increases to 2.5. C. The serum glucose level for a client receiving corticosteroids increases to 150 mg/dL (8.3 mmol/L). D. The potassium level for a client scheduled for renal dialysis increases to 5 mEq/L(5 mmol/L).

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A Reason: This client has a very high BNP level, which indicates severe heart failure and fluid overload. The nurse should follow up with this client first, as they may need urgent interventions such as oxygen therapy, diuretics, and vasodilators.

Choice B Reason: This client has an INR within the therapeutic range for warfarin therapy, which is usually between 2 and 3. The nurse should monitor this client for signs of bleeding or clotting, but they do not require immediate follow-up.

Choice C Reason: This client has a mildly elevated glucose level, which may be caused by the corticosteroids that

increase blood sugar. The nurse should check the client's blood glucose regularly and administer insulin as ordered, but they do not require immediate follow-up.

Choice D Reason: This client has a normal potassium level, which is within the reference range of 3.5 to 5 mEq/L. The nurse should ensure that the client is ready for dialysis and avoid foods high in potassium, but they do not require immediate follow-up.

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A staff nurse has been tardy for morning shift assignments for the past three days and provides no explanation for arriving late. Which approach is best for the nurse manager to use when addressing this staff member's tardiness?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse leading a care team on a medical surgical unit is assigning client care to a practical nurse (PN) and an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which task should the nurse delegate to the PN?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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