A staff nurse has been tardy for morning shift assignments for the past three days and provides no explanation for arriving late. Which approach is best for the nurse manager to use when addressing this staff member's tardiness?
Caution the nurse that one more tardiness will result in probational employment.
Offer to switch the nurse's shift assignments to afternoons or evenings.
Stress the expectation that the nurse will arrive on time for all scheduled shifts.
Have the nurse sign a copy of the hospital employee attendance policy.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A Reason: Cautioning the nurse that one more tardiness will result in probational employment is not the best approach because it is too punitive and does not address the underlying cause of the tardiness. The nurse manager should first try to understand why the nurse is late and offer support or guidance if needed.
Choice B Reason: Offering to switch the nurse's shift assignments to afternoons or evenings is not the best approach because it may not solve the problem of tardiness and may create resentment among other staff members who have to adjust their schedules. The nurse manager should respect the nurse's preferences and availability but also hold the nurse accountable for fulfilling their responsibilities.
Choice C Reason: This is the best approach because it communicates clearly and respectfully what is expected of the nurse and why it is important for them to be punctual. The nurse manager should also provide feedback and recognition when the nurse improves their attendance.
Choice D reason: Having the nurse sign a copy of the hospital employee attendance policy is not the best approach because it may imply that the nurse is unaware or indifferent to the policy. The nurse manager should assume that the nurse knows and agrees with the policy, but may need some assistance or motivation to follow it.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Ceftriaxone is an antibiotic that can be given by gravity infusion without an IV pump, as long as the nurse monitors the flow rate and adjusts the roller clamp as needed. The dose and duration of ceftriaxone are usually fixed and not affected by minor fluctuations in the infusion rate.
Choice B reason: Heparin is an anticoagulant that requires a precise and constant infusion rate to prevent bleeding or clotting complications. An IV pump is essential to deliver heparin safely and accurately.
Choice C reason: Magnesium is an electrolyte that can cause serious adverse effects such as cardiac arrhythmias,
respiratory depression, and muscle weakness if infused too rapidly or too slowly. An IV pump is necessary to control the infusion rate and prevent magnesium toxicity or deficiency.
Choice D reason: Regular insulin is a hormone that regulates blood glucose levels and requires careful titration based on frequent blood glucose monitoring. An IV pump is required to deliver insulin at a consistent and adjustable rate to avoid hypoglycemia or hyperglycemia.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A Reason: A subtotal thyroidectomy is a major surgery that involves the removal of part of the thyroid gland. The client may have complications such as bleeding, infection, hypocalcemia, or vocal cord damage. The client also needs close monitoring of vital signs, blood transfusion, and airway patency. This client is not stable enough to be transferred to a general unit.
Choice B Reason: A combined partial and full-thickness burn is a serious injury that involves damage to the epidermis, dermis, and underlying tissues. The client may have complications such as infection, fluid loss, hypovolemia, shock, or respiratory distress. The client also needs wound care, pain management, fluid replacement, and oxygen therapy. This client is not stable enough to be transferred to a general unit.
Choice C Reason: A renal transplant is a major surgery that involves the replacement of a diseased kidney with a healthy one from a donor. The client may have complications such as rejection, infection, bleeding, thrombosis, or urinary obstruction. The client also needs immunosuppressive therapy, anti-infective therapy, fluid and electrolyte balance, and pain management. This client is not stable enough to be transferred to a general unit.
Choice D Reason: Nephrotic syndrome is a kidney disorder that causes excessive protein loss in the urine, leading to low serum protein levels and edema. The client may have complications such as infection, thromboembolism, or malnutrition. The client needs diuretic therapy, protein replacement, dietary modification, and infection prevention. This client is relatively stable and can be transferred to a general unit.
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