A staff nurse has been tardy for morning shift assignments for the past three days and provides no explanation for arriving late. Which approach is best for the nurse manager to use when addressing this staff member's tardiness?

Caution the nurse that one more tardiness will result in probational employment.

Offer to switch the nurse's shift assignments to afternoons or evenings.

Stress the expectation that the nurse will arrive on time for all scheduled shifts.

Have the nurse sign a copy of the hospital employee attendance policy.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A Reason: Cautioning the nurse that one more tardiness will result in probational employment is not the best approach because it is too punitive and does not address the underlying cause of the tardiness. The nurse manager should first try to understand why the nurse is late and offer support or guidance if needed.

Choice B Reason: Offering to switch the nurse's shift assignments to afternoons or evenings is not the best approach because it may not solve the problem of tardiness and may create resentment among other staff members who have to adjust their schedules. The nurse manager should respect the nurse's preferences and availability but also hold the nurse accountable for fulfilling their responsibilities.

Choice C Reason: This is the best approach because it communicates clearly and respectfully what is expected of the nurse and why it is important for them to be punctual. The nurse manager should also provide feedback and recognition when the nurse improves their attendance.

Choice D reason: Having the nurse sign a copy of the hospital employee attendance policy is not the best approach because it may imply that the nurse is unaware or indifferent to the policy. The nurse manager should assume that the nurse knows and agrees with the policy, but may need some assistance or motivation to follow it.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A) This intervention is not the best because it may take too much time and energy from the nurse, who needs to focus on the client's critical condition. The nurse may also have to repeat the same information multiple times, which can be frustrating and confusing for both the nurse and the family.

B) This intervention is not the best because it may not be feasible or appropriate at this time. The healthcare provider may be busy with other clients or procedures, and may not be able to speak with the family right away. The healthcare provider may also need to obtain the client's consent or permission before disclosing any information to the family, which may not be possible if the client is sedated.

C) This intervention is the best because it can help reduce the number and frequency of questions, and facilitate clear and consistent communication between the nurse and the family. The nurse can ask the family to choose one person who will act as their representative and spokesperson, and who will relay any information or updates to the rest of the family. This can also help respect the client's privacy and confidentiality, and prevent any conflicting or contradictory messages.

D) This intervention is not the best because it may not address the family's informational needs or preferences. The chaplain on call may provide spiritual or emotional support to the family, but may not be able to answer any medical or technical questions. The family may also have different religious or cultural beliefs that may not align with the chaplain's role or perspective.

A. The brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) assay for a client with shortness of breath after a myocardial infarction (MI) increases to 1000 pg/mL (1000 ng/L). B. The international normalized ratio (INR) for a client who is receiving warfarin therapy increases to 2.5. C. The serum glucose level for a client receiving corticosteroids increases to 150 mg/dL (8.3 mmol/L). D. The potassium level for a client scheduled for renal dialysis increases to 5 mEq/L(5 mmol/L).

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A Reason: This client has a very high BNP level, which indicates severe heart failure and fluid overload. The nurse should follow up with this client first, as they may need urgent interventions such as oxygen therapy, diuretics, and vasodilators.

Choice B Reason: This client has an INR within the therapeutic range for warfarin therapy, which is usually between 2 and 3. The nurse should monitor this client for signs of bleeding or clotting, but they do not require immediate follow-up.

Choice C Reason: This client has a mildly elevated glucose level, which may be caused by the corticosteroids that

increase blood sugar. The nurse should check the client's blood glucose regularly and administer insulin as ordered, but they do not require immediate follow-up.

Choice D Reason: This client has a normal potassium level, which is within the reference range of 3.5 to 5 mEq/L. The nurse should ensure that the client is ready for dialysis and avoid foods high in potassium, but they do not require immediate follow-up.

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A staff nurse has been tardy for morning shift assignments for the past three days and provides no explanation for arriving late. Which approach is best for the nurse manager to use when addressing this staff member's tardiness?

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