An older female client who was recently widowed has become increasingly confused and disoriented. Her family tells the healthcare provider's office nurse that it is imperative for their mother to be admitted to the hospital for medical evaluation. The client is a member of a managed healthcare plan. Which information is best for the nurse to provide this family?
Managed healthcare plans do not pay for any in-hospital medical evaluations.
Healthcare costs are escalating because clients want to have diagnostic testing conducted in the hospital.
The client is grieving normally in response to her husband's death and hospitalization is not necessary.
Managed care providers have mandatory pre-certification requirements for hospitalization.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A Reason: Managed healthcare plans do not pay for any in-hospital medical evaluations is not the best information for the nurse to provide this family. This statement is false and misleading. Managed healthcare plans may cover in-hospital medical evaluations if they are deemed medically necessary and authorized by the plan. The nurse should not discourage the family from seeking appropriate care for their mother based on inaccurate information.
Choice B Reason: Healthcare costs are escalating because clients want to have diagnostic testing conducted in the hospital is not the best information for the nurse to provide this family. This statement is irrelevant and insensitive. Healthcare costs are influenced by many factors, such as technology, inflation, regulation, and demand. The nurse should not blame the clients for wanting to have diagnostic testing done in the hospital, which may be essential for their health and well-being.
Choice C Reason: The client is grieving normally in response to her husband's death and hospitalization is not necessary is not the best information for the nurse to provide this family. This statement is presumptuous and dismissive. Grief is a complex and individual process that may affect people differently. The nurse should not assume that the client's confusion and disorientation are normal signs of grief, which may mask underlying medical conditions that require evaluation and treatment.
Choice D Reason: Managed care providers have mandatory pre-certification requirements for hospitalization is the best information for the nurse to provide this family. This statement is factual and helpful. Pre-certification is a process by which managed care providers review and approve proposed hospital admissions, procedures, or services before they are performed. The nurse should inform the family that they need to obtain pre-certification from their mother's plan before admitting her to the hospital, or they may face denial of coverage or higher out-of-pocket costs.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A Reason: This is not the best action because it is a medication error that can be corrected and prevented by following the rights of medication administration. The nurse manager should counsel the staff nurse and provide education on safe medication practices.
Choice B Reason: This is the best action because it is a serious breach of professional ethics and standards. The nurse manager should report the staff nurse to the PRC for falsifying documentation and compromising client care.
Choice C Reason: This is not the best action because it is a mistake that can be rectified by removing the diet tray and notifying the healthcare provider. The nurse manager should reprimand the staff nurse and review the policy on NPO status.
Choice D Reason: This is not the best action because it is a minor issue that can be resolved by communicating with the charge nurse and other staff members. The nurse manager should remind the staff nurse of the importance of teamwork and collaboration.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A Reason: The initial administration of the analgesic is not an intervention that the charge nurse should counsel the nurse about. The opioid analgesic was prescribed by the healthcare provider and was appropriate for the postoperative pain management of the client.
Choice B Reason: The decision regarding when to call the healthcare provider is an intervention that the charge nurse should counsel the nurse about. The nurse should have called the healthcare provider as soon as the client's
respiratory rate decreased to 6 breaths/minute, which is a sign of opioid-induced respiratory depression. Waiting for another 30 minutes until the respiratory rate decreased to 4 breaths/minute could have put the client at risk of hypoxia, brain damage, or death.
Choice C Reason: The documentation of the client's respiratory rate is not an intervention that the charge nurse should counsel the nurse about. The nurse documented the client's respiratory rate accurately and timely, which is part of the standard of care and legal responsibility of the nurse.
Choice D Reason: The administration of naloxone via IV is not an intervention that the charge nurse should counsel the nurse about. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that reverses the effects of opioids and restores normal respiration. Administering naloxone via IV is the fastest and most effective way to treat opioid-induced respiratory depression.
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