It is most important to assign which client to a registered nurse rather than a practical nurse (PN)?
One hour after receiving hydromorphone prescribed for every 4 hours PRN use, a client reports severe pain.
Two hours after receiving morphine for acute pain, a client's vital signs are BP 112/60 mm Hg, pulse 88 beats/minute, and respirations 14 breaths/minute.
After ambulating, a postoperative client grimaces and reports incisional pain at a "9 on a ten-point scale".
The fentanyl transdermal patch for a client with chronic cancer pain needs to be replaced.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A Reason: This client may need another dose of hydromorphone if the pain is not relieved by the previous one. A PN can administer this medication under the supervision of a RN and monitor the client's response.
Choice B Reason: This client's vital signs are within normal limits and indicate that the morphine is effective and not causing respiratory depression. A PN can assess and document the client's vital signs and pain level.
Choice C Reason: This is the correct answer because this client has acute and severe pain that may require immediate intervention and reassessment. An RN can evaluate the cause and severity of the pain, administer additional analgesics as prescribed, and implement nonpharmacological measures to relieve the pain.
Choice D Reason: This client has chronic and stable pain that is managed by a fentanyl patch. A PN can replace the patch according to the schedule and instructions provided by the RN.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A Reason: Cautioning the nurse that one more tardiness will result in probational employment is not the best approach because it is too punitive and does not address the underlying cause of the tardiness. The nurse manager should first try to understand why the nurse is late and offer support or guidance if needed.
Choice B Reason: Offering to switch the nurse's shift assignments to afternoons or evenings is not the best approach because it may not solve the problem of tardiness and may create resentment among other staff members who have to adjust their schedules. The nurse manager should respect the nurse's preferences and availability but also hold the nurse accountable for fulfilling their responsibilities.
Choice C Reason: This is the best approach because it communicates clearly and respectfully what is expected of the nurse and why it is important for them to be punctual. The nurse manager should also provide feedback and recognition when the nurse improves their attendance.
Choice D reason: Having the nurse sign a copy of the hospital employee attendance policy is not the best approach because it may imply that the nurse is unaware or indifferent to the policy. The nurse manager should assume that the nurse knows and agrees with the policy, but may need some assistance or motivation to follow it.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A Reason: This is not the first action because it does not address the safety risk of smoking in the hospital. The nurse should document the occurrence after taking appropriate measures to prevent fire and injury.
Choice B Reason: This is not the first action because it does not stop the client from smoking in the bathroom. The nurse should obtain a prescription for a nicotine patch if the client agrees to quit smoking, but this is not a priority at this time.
Choice C Reason: This is not the first action because it does not ensure that the client will comply with the hospital smoking policy. The nurse should educate the client about the health hazards of smoking and the hospital rules, but this can be done later.
Choice D Reason: This is the best action because it alerts the authority figure who can intervene and enforce the hospital smoking policy. The nurse should notify the charge nurse as soon as possible to prevent fire and injury.
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