The nurse receives a change-of-shift report from the prior nurse assigned to a group of clients on a post-surgical unit. Which client requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?
A client who had an abdominal-perineal resection 3 days ago has no drainage on the dressing and is reporting chills.
A client who fell from a ladder and has a collapsed left lower lung with 100 mL drainage in a chest tube collection container.
A client who was admitted 4 hours ago with a gunshot wound and has a dressing with 2 cm-sized dark red drainage.
A client who is post-mastectomy 2 days ago and has 50 mL of serosanguineous fluid in a Jackson-Pratt drain.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: This client may have an infection or sepsis, which are life-threatening complications of surgery. The nurse should assess the client's vital signs, wound appearance, and laboratory results, and notify the physician immediately.
Choice B reason: This client has a chest tube to drain the pleural fluid and re-expand the lung. The amount of drainage is within normal limits and does not indicate an emergency. The nurse should monitor the client's respiratory status, oxygen saturation, and chest tube function.
Choice C reason: This client has a gunshot wound that may have caused tissue damage and bleeding. The dressing with 2 cm-sized dark red drainage may indicate fresh bleeding, but it is not excessive. The nurse should check the dressing for signs of infection, change it as ordered, and report any changes to the physician.
Choice D reason: This client has a Jackson-Pratt drain to collect the fluid from the surgical site after a mastectomy. The amount of serosanguineous fluid is expected and does not indicate a problem. The nurse should empty and measure the drain output, record it, and report any abnormalities to the physician.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A Reason: This is the best action because it describes the current situation of the client and alerts the family to a possible change in the client's status. The nurse should provide the most relevant and urgent information first using the SBAR communication.
Choice B Reason: This is not the first action because it does not address the current situation of the client. The nurse should verify the client's healthcare power of attorney, but this is not a priority at this time.
Choice C Reason: This is not the first action because it does not explain the cause of the client's confusion. The nurse should review the client's medications and assess for any adverse effects, but this is not a priority at this time.
Choice D Reason: This is not the first action because it provides background information that is not directly related to the current situation of the client. The nurse should give a brief history of the client's admission, but this can be done later.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Ceftriaxone is an antibiotic that can be given by gravity infusion without an IV pump, as long as the nurse monitors the flow rate and adjusts the roller clamp as needed. The dose and duration of ceftriaxone are usually fixed and not affected by minor fluctuations in the infusion rate.
Choice B reason: Heparin is an anticoagulant that requires a precise and constant infusion rate to prevent bleeding or clotting complications. An IV pump is essential to deliver heparin safely and accurately.
Choice C reason: Magnesium is an electrolyte that can cause serious adverse effects such as cardiac arrhythmias,
respiratory depression, and muscle weakness if infused too rapidly or too slowly. An IV pump is necessary to control the infusion rate and prevent magnesium toxicity or deficiency.
Choice D reason: Regular insulin is a hormone that regulates blood glucose levels and requires careful titration based on frequent blood glucose monitoring. An IV pump is required to deliver insulin at a consistent and adjustable rate to avoid hypoglycemia or hyperglycemia.
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