A patient's medication regimen for treatment of anxiety has been changed from a benzodiazepine to buspirone (BuSpar). The patient asks the nurse what makes this medication safer than the benzodiazepine he has taken. What is the nurse's best response?
"It will not produce sedation like benzodiazepines"
"It produces anticonvulsant action to prevent convulsions."
"It produces muscle relaxant effects to decrease back pain."
"It provides you with a sleep additive to decrease insomnia."
The Correct Answer is A
A. "It will not produce sedation like benzodiazepines." Buspirone is a non-sedative anxiolytic, making it safer for long-term use compared to benzodiazepines, which can cause sedation and other CNS depressant effects. This is the best response as it directly addresses the patient's concern about safety.
B. "It produces anticonvulsant action to prevent convulsions." Buspirone does not have anticonvulsant properties, and this response does not address the patient’s question about safety compared to benzodiazepines.
C. "It produces muscle relaxant effects to decrease back pain." Buspirone does not have muscle relaxant effects, and this response does not directly answer the patient’s concern about the safety of the medication.
D. "It provides you with a sleep additive to decrease insomnia." Buspirone does not have significant sedative or hypnotic effects, making this response incorrect.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Emaciation: Emaciation refers to extreme weight loss and muscle wasting due to severe malnutrition, not just loss of appetite.
B. Cachexia: Cachexia is a complex syndrome associated with chronic illness, characterized by severe weight loss, muscle atrophy, and fatigue. While it may include loss of appetite, it’s not the best term for simple loss of appetite.
C. Anorexia: Anorexia is the correct medical term for loss of appetite. It can be related to various conditions, including prolonged illness.
D. Nausea: Nausea is a sensation of discomfort in the stomach with an urge to vomit, not loss of appetite.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Elevated blood glucose: Elevated blood glucose is a common side effect of prednisone due to its glucocorticoid activity. However, this does not indicate the effectiveness of treatment for rheumatoid arthritis.
B. Improved range of motion: Improved range of motion is an indication that the inflammation and pain associated with rheumatoid arthritis are being effectively managed by prednisone, making this the best indicator of treatment effectiveness.
C. Increased blood pressure: Increased blood pressure is another potential side effect of prednisone but does not indicate the effectiveness of the treatment for rheumatoid arthritis.
D. Improved mood: While prednisone can sometimes improve mood, this is not a direct indicator of its effectiveness in treating rheumatoid arthritis.
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