A patient with peripheral vascular disease has been on pentoxifylline (Trental) for 2 weeks.
Which statements by the patient indicate no need for further patient teaching about the disease? Select all that apply.
"I should quit smoking to improve blood flow.".
"I need to avoid prolonged sitting or standing.".
"I should take my pentoxifylline with meals.".
"I need to limit my physical activity to avoid worsening symptoms.".
Correct Answer : A,B
Pentoxifylline is a medication that improves blood flow and oxygen delivery to the tissues in patients with peripheral vascular disease (PVD), a condition that causes narrowing of the arteries in the legs. Pentoxifylline can help reduce the symptoms of intermittent claudication, which is cramping pain in the legs that occurs with walking and improves with rest.
Choice A is correct because smoking is a major risk factor for PVD and quitting smoking can improve blood flow and prevent further damage to the arteries.
Choice B is correct because prolonged sitting or standing can reduce blood flow to the legs and worsen symptoms of PVD.
Patients should avoid crossing their legs, wearing tight clothing, or exposing their legs to cold temperatures. They should also elevate their legs when resting and move them frequently.
Choice C is wrong because pentoxifylline should be taken on an empty stomach, at least one hour before or two hours after meals, to increase its absorption and effectiveness.
Choice D is wrong because physical activity is beneficial for patients with PVD and intermittent claudication.
Exercise can improve blood circulation, increase muscle strength, reduce pain, and lower cardiovascular risk factors. Patients should be encouraged to walk regularly, as tolerated, and follow a supervised exercise program if available.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
ACE inhibitors are a type of medication used to treat high blood pressure and heart failure. They work by blocking the production of a hormone called angiotensin II, which narrows the blood vessels and increases blood pressure.By preventing this hormone from acting, ACE inhibitors lower blood pressure and reduce the workload on the heart. One of the most common side effects of ACE inhibitors is a dry cough, which occurs in 12–19% of people who take them. The cough is caused by the accumulation of a substance called bradykinin, which is normally broken down by angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE).When ACE is inhibited, bradykinin levels increase and cause irritation and inflammation in the airways.
Choice A is wrong because decreased white blood cells are not a common side effect of ACE inhibitors.
However, some people may develop a condition called neutropenia, which is a low level of a type of white blood cell called neutrophils.This can increase the risk of infections and may require stopping the medication.
Choice B is wrong because swelling of the face and lips is not a common side effect of ACE inhibitors.
However, some people may develop a rare but serious allergic reaction called angioedema, which is a swelling of the deeper layers of the skin and mucous membranes.
This can affect the face, lips, tongue, throat, or other parts of the body and can cause difficulty breathing or swallowing.Angioedema can be life-threatening and requires immediate medical attention.
Choice D is wrong because renal failure is not a common side effect of ACE inhibitors.
However, some people may experience a decrease in kidney function or an increase in blood levels of creatinine, which is a waste product filtered by the kidneys.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Diuretics are drugs that increase the amount of urine and salt (sodium) excreted by the kidneys. They are used to treat high blood pressure, heart failure, and edema (fluid retention). However, some diuretics can cause low levels of potassium in the blood (hypokalemia), which can lead to muscle weakness, cramps, and arrhythmias. To prevent this, a combination of diuretics acting on different parts of the kidney (such as a loop diuretic and a thiazide diuretic) may be prescribed.This way, the potassium-sparing effect of one diuretic can balance the potassium-wasting effect of the other, while still achieving a net sodium loss.
Choice A is wrong because they are not a part of the initial diuretic therapy.Combination diuretic therapy is usually reserved for patients who are resistant to or intolerant of monotherapy.
Choice C is wrong because little follow up is not needed after the initial treatment.Patients on combination diuretic therapy require close monitoring of their blood pressure, electrolytes, renal function, and weight to avoid adverse effects such as dehydration, hyponatremia, hypotension, and worsening renal function.
Choice D is wrong because they do not increase the risk of hypokalemia.As explained above, combination diuretic therapy aims to reduce the risk of hypokalemia by using a potassium-sparing diuretic along with a potassium-wasting diuretic.
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