A patient with left heart failure starts to have a cough and dyspnea. Pulmonary symptoms common to left heart failure are a result of:
Decreased cardiac output.
Bronchoconstriction.
Inflammatory pulmonary edema.
Pulmonary vascular congestion.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: This is not the cause of pulmonary symptoms in left heart failure. Decreased cardiac output is a consequence of left heart failure, which affects the perfusion of vital organs and tissues.
Choice B reason: This is not the cause of pulmonary symptoms in left heart failure. Bronchoconstriction is a feature of asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), which affect the airways and cause wheezes and shortness of breath.
Choice C reason: This is not the cause of pulmonary symptoms in left heart failure. Inflammatory pulmonary edema is a type of non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema, which occurs when the alveolar-capillary membrane is damaged by an inflammatory process, such as pneumonia or sepsis.
Choice D reason: This is the correct cause of pulmonary symptoms in left heart failure. Pulmonary vascular congestion is a result of increased pressure in the pulmonary circulation, which occurs when the left ventricle fails to pump blood effectively to the aorta and the rest of the body. This causes fluid to leak into the alveoli and interstitial spaces, leading to cough, dyspnea, crackles, and pink frothy sputum.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: This is not a physiological response to hydralazine. Cool extremities are a sign of poor peripheral perfusion, which can be caused by vasoconstriction, not vasodilation.
Choice B reason: This is not a physiological response to hydralazine. Increased urinary output is a sign of diuresis, which can be caused by diuretic medications, not vasodilators.
Choice C reason: This is not a physiological response to hydralazine. Pale skin is a sign of reduced blood flow to the skin, which can be caused by vasoconstriction, not vasodilation.
Choice D reason: This is a physiological response to hydralazine. Reflex tachycardia is a compensatory mechanism that occurs when the blood pressure drops due to vasodilation. The heart rate increases to maintain the cardiac output and perfusion pressure.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Vasodilators are not the preferred agents for the initial treatment of heart failure. They are used as adjunctive therapy to reduce the afterload and preload on the heart. However, they do not address the fluid overload that is the main cause of heart failure symptoms.
Choice B reason: Diuretics are the preferred agents for the initial treatment of heart failure. They help to reduce the fluid overload and congestion in the lungs and peripheral tissues. They also lower the blood pressure and improve the cardiac output and renal function.
Choice C reason: Calcium channel blockers are not the preferred agents for the initial treatment of heart failure. They are contraindicated in most cases of heart failure because they can worsen the cardiac function and increase the mortality. They can also cause peripheral edema and hypotension.
Choice D reason: Direct renin inhibitors are not the preferred agents for the initial treatment of heart failure. They are a newer class of drugs that block the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS), which is involved in the pathophysiology of heart failure. However, they have not shown any significant benefit over the existing RAAS inhibitors, such as angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs). They can also cause hyperkalemia and renal impairment.
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