A patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome is receiving a paralyzing agent. With a Train-of-four (TOF) assessment, the patient’s thumb twitches 3 times. How would the nurse interpret this response?
The patient’s paralysing agent dose in adequate, but needs to be given more often
The patients paralyzing agent dose is too low and needs to be increased
The patient’s paralyzing agent dose in appropriate and does not need to be changed
The patients paralyzing agent dose is too high and needs to be reduced
The Correct Answer is A
A. The patient’s paralyzing agent dose is adequate, but needs to be given more often.
In a Train-of-four (TOF) assessment, four stimuli are delivered in rapid succession, and the response is observed. The number of twitches in the patient's thumb indicates the degree of neuromuscular blockade. In this case, if the patient's thumb twitches three times, it suggests that there is still some residual neuromuscular blockade, and the paralyzing agent dose is adequate. However, the frequency of administration may need to be increased to maintain the desired level of paralysis or neuromuscular blockade.
B. The patient’s paralyzing agent dose is too low and needs to be increased:
This would be indicated if there were fewer than three twitches in response to the TOF assessment.
C. The patient’s paralyzing agent dose is appropriate and does not need to be changed:
The response of three twitches suggests that there is still some neuromuscular blockade, so the dose or frequency may need adjustment.
D. The patient’s paralyzing agent dose is too high and needs to be reduced:
If there were no twitches or a complete absence of twitches, this might suggest an excessive dose. However, three twitches indicate some degree of neuromuscular blockade.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. A client who has a prescription for insulin, and his premeal capillary blood glucose was 110 mg/dL, and his post-meal capillary blood glucose is now 160 mg/dL:
While changes in blood glucose levels are important to monitor, the described change is not as significant as a sudden drop in blood pressure. The blood glucose levels in this scenario are still within a reasonable range.
B. A client whose blood pressure at 0800 was 138/86 mm Hg, and at 1200 is 106/60 mm Hg:
This is the priority client. The significant drop in blood pressure raises concerns about hypovolemia or circulatory issues, which require immediate attention to prevent complications such as inadequate organ perfusion.
C. A client who reports pain as 4 on a scale of 1 to 10 at 0800 and now reports pain as 6:
Pain management is important, but the change in pain intensity from 4 to 6, while indicating an increase, may not be as urgent as addressing a significant drop in blood pressure. Pain assessment and management can be addressed after stabilizing the client with the acute change.
D. A client whose wound drainage at 0800 was sanguineous, and now it is serosanguineous:
Changes in wound drainage color can be important for assessing the healing process, but a shift from sanguineous to serosanguineous is generally within the expected progression of wound healing. It may not require immediate intervention as compared to a significant drop in blood pressure.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Glucagon:
Glucagon is not used as an antidote for heparin overdose. It is typically used to treat severe hypoglycemia.
B. Vitamin K:
Vitamin K is the antidote for warfarin, another anticoagulant, but it is not effective for reversing the effects of heparin.
C. Protamine
Protamine is the specific antidote for heparin. It acts by binding to heparin, neutralizing its anticoagulant effects. It is important to note that the administration of protamine should be done carefully, and the dosage must be based on the amount of heparin the patient has received.
D. Calcium:
Calcium is not an antidote for heparin. It is more relevant in cases of calcium channel blocker toxicity or hypocalcemia.
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