A patient with a deep partial thickness burn has been receiving hydromorphone through patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) for 1 week. The nurse caring for the patient during the previous shift reports that the patient wakes up frequently during the night reporting pain. What action by the nurse is appropriate?
Teach the patient to push the button every 10 minutes for an hour before going to sleep, even if the pain is minimal.
Request that the health care provider order a bolus dose of morphine to be given when the patient awakens with pain.
Consult with the health care provider about using a different treatment protocol to control the patient's pain.
Administer a dose of morphine every 1 to 2 hours from the PCA machine while the patient is sleeping.
The Correct Answer is C
C. This option is appropriate as the current treatment protocol is not effectively managing the patient's pain. The nurse can collaborate with the healthcare provider to reassess the patient's pain management needs and explore alternative strategies or adjustments to the PCA regimen.
A. This approach may lead to overmedication and increase the risk of adverse effects such as respiratory depression or sedation.
B. Requesting a bolus dose when the patient awakens with pain could be a part of the solution, but it should be carefully evaluated within the context of the overall pain management plan.
D. Administering scheduled doses of morphine from the PCA machine without the patient's input or based solely on time intervals is not recommended.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
D. Difficulty or inability to abduct (raise out to the side) the arm at the shoulder is a classic finding in rotator cuff injuries, particularly in cases of significant tears or severe inflammation. This limitation in shoulder movement can be due to pain, weakness, or mechanical impingement caused by the injured rotator cuff.
A. The drop arm test is a physical examination maneuver used to assess for rotator cuff tears. In a negative drop arm test, the patient is able to slowly lower their arm from an abducted position (out to the side) to their side without significant pain or weakness. A negative test suggests that there may not be a complete tear of the rotator cuff.
B. Alteration in the contour of the shoulder joint could indicate various shoulder pathologies, including rotator cuff injuries. However, it is a nonspecific finding and can occur with other shoulder conditions as well.
C. Tinel's sign is a test used to assess for nerve compression or irritation. While it can be positive in conditions such as carpal tunnel syndrome, it is not typically associated with rotator cuff injuries.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Vital sign monitoring every 15 minutes is a standard practice in the postanesthesia care unit (PACU) to closely monitor the patient's hemodynamic status and response to anesthesia. However, in this scenario, the patient's blood pressure (BP) and other vital signs are within an acceptable range, and there are no signs of instability.
B. The patient's vital signs, including BP, pulse rate, and skin condition, are within normal limits. There are no indications of hemodynamic instability or adverse events.
C. There is no indication to increase the postoperative intravenous (IV) fluid rate based solely on the patient's stable vital signs and absence of signs of dehydration or hypovolemia. Increasing IV fluids without clinical indication may lead to fluid overload and potential complications.
D. The patient's oxygen saturation level is not provided in the scenario, and there are no signs or symptoms of respiratory distress or hypoxemia. Therefore, administering oxygen therapy at 100% per mask is not warranted at this time.
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