A patient was admitted to the intensive care unit with a diagnosis of acute myocardial infarction (MI) and is being treated for hypotension. The primary cause of hypotension is most likely:
decreased afterload due to vasodilation.
rapid heart rate.
decreased cardiac contractility, resulting in decreased cardiac output.
increased capillary permeability.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason:
Decreased afterload due to vasodilation is not the primary cause of hypotension in acute myocardial infarction. While vasodilation can lower blood pressure, in the context of MI, the more direct and significant cause of hypotension is the reduced cardiac contractility leading to decreased cardiac output. Vasodilation and afterload reduction are not the primary mechanisms in this scenario.
Choice B reason:
A rapid heart rate, or tachycardia, can contribute to hypotension by reducing the time for the heart to fill with blood between beats. However, in the context of an acute myocardial infarction, the primary issue is the heart's ability to contract effectively. Therefore, while a rapid heart rate might exacerbate the condition, it is not the main cause of hypotension.
Choice C reason:
Decreased cardiac contractility, resulting in decreased cardiac output, is the primary cause of hypotension in acute myocardial infarction. The damaged heart muscle cannot pump effectively, leading to reduced blood flow and low blood pressure. This is a direct consequence of the myocardial damage caused by the infarction, making this the correct answer.
Choice D reason:
Increased capillary permeability is not a primary cause of hypotension in acute myocardial infarction. This condition is more associated with inflammatory responses, sepsis, or allergic reactions. The main cause of hypotension in MI is related to the heart's reduced pumping ability.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Amphotericin B is an antifungal medication and is not used to treat viral infections such as herpes-zoster. This choice is incorrect because it does not target the herpes virus, which causes conditions like shingles.
Choice B reason:
Acyclovir is an antiviral medication specifically used to treat infections caused by the herpes virus, including herpes-zoster (shingles). It works by inhibiting viral replication, reducing the severity and duration of symptoms. This makes it the correct choice for treating herpes-zoster infection.
Choice C reason:
Azole antifungals are used to treat fungal infections, not viral infections like herpes-zoster. This choice is incorrect as it does not relate to the treatment of the herpes virus.
Choice D reason:
Tamiflu is an antiviral medication used to treat influenza, not herpes-zoster. While it targets a viral infection, it is specific to the influenza virus and not effective against the herpes virus. Therefore, this choice is incorrect.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Bowel obstruction can cause abdominal pain, but it typically presents with symptoms such as vomiting, absence of bowel movements, and abdominal distention rather than localized right lower quadrant pain and rebound tenderness. Therefore, this choice is less likely.
Choice B reason:
Hepatitis usually presents with symptoms like jaundice, fatigue, and generalized abdominal discomfort rather than localized right lower quadrant pain with rebound tenderness. This makes hepatitis an unlikely diagnosis in this case.
Choice C reason:
Appendicitis is characterized by right lower quadrant pain, rebound tenderness, and low-grade fever, making it the most likely diagnosis for this patient. These symptoms are classic for appendicitis, a common surgical emergency in young adults.
Choice D reason:
Colon cancer can cause abdominal pain, but it is typically associated with older age, changes in bowel habits, and weight loss. The presentation of right lower quadrant pain and rebound tenderness with fever is not typical for colon cancer, making it an unlikely diagnosis in this young patient.
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