A patient comes to the clinic for a herpes-zoster infection? (Select all that apply)

Amphotericin B

Acyclovir

An azole group

Tamiflu

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A reason:
Amphotericin B is an antifungal medication and is not used to treat viral infections such as herpes-zoster. This choice is incorrect because it does not target the herpes virus, which causes conditions like shingles.
Choice B reason:
Acyclovir is an antiviral medication specifically used to treat infections caused by the herpes virus, including herpes-zoster (shingles). It works by inhibiting viral replication, reducing the severity and duration of symptoms. This makes it the correct choice for treating herpes-zoster infection.
Choice C reason:
Azole antifungals are used to treat fungal infections, not viral infections like herpes-zoster. This choice is incorrect as it does not relate to the treatment of the herpes virus.
Choice D reason:
Tamiflu is an antiviral medication used to treat influenza, not herpes-zoster. While it targets a viral infection, it is specific to the influenza virus and not effective against the herpes virus. Therefore, this choice is incorrect.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason:
Amoxicillin is an antibiotic used to treat bacterial infections. It has no role in the management of atrial fibrillation, which is a cardiac rhythm disorder. Antibiotics do not address the prevention of thromboembolism or the control of heart rate or rhythm.

Choice B reason:
Reglan (metoclopramide) is a medication used to treat gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) and gastroparesis. It does not have any indication for use in atrial fibrillation. The management of atrial fibrillation focuses on rate or rhythm control and anticoagulation.

Choice C reason:
Rivaroxaban (Xarelto) is an anticoagulant that is commonly prescribed for patients with atrial fibrillation to prevent stroke and systemic embolism. Since atrial fibrillation increases the risk of thromboembolism, anticoagulation is a crucial component of the treatment plan to reduce the risk of stroke.

Choice D reason:
Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor used to treat acid-related stomach issues such as GERD. It is not relevant to the management of atrial fibrillation. The primary concerns in managing atrial fibrillation are controlling the heart rate and preventing thromboembolism, which omeprazole does not address.

A. Prevent abdominal distention. B. Prevent mechanical obstruction of the intestine. C. Limit pancreatic secretion. D. Prevent hyperglycemia associated with loss of insulin secretion.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice C reason: Limiting pancreatic secretion is the primary reason for making patients with acute pancreatitis NPO and using gastric suctioning. By reducing the stimulation of the pancreas, the inflammation and autodigestion of pancreatic tissue can be minimized, aiding in the healing process.
Choice A reason: Preventing abdominal distention is a secondary benefit of making patients NPO, but it is not the primary reason for this intervention in acute pancreatitis.
Choice B reason: Preventing mechanical obstruction of the intestine is not the main goal of making patients NPO in acute pancreatitis. This condition primarily affects the pancreas, not the intestines.
Choice D reason: Preventing hyperglycemia associated with loss of insulin secretion is not the primary reason for making patients NPO in acute pancreatitis. While hyperglycemia can occur in severe cases, the main focus is on reducing pancreatic stimulation.

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A patient comes to the clinic for a herpes-zoster infection? (Select all that apply)

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A patient is newly diagnosed with atrial fibrillation and is being discharged home today. Their heart rate is controlled at 88 bpm and BP is 121/68. They deny dizziness or fatigue. What medication do we expect this patient will be discharged home with?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Patients with acute pancreatitis are generally made NPO (nothing by mouth) and may require gastric suctioning via NG tube, in order to:

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A patient has begun taking an HMG-COA reductase inhibitor (statins). Which statement about this class of drugs made by the nurse during patient education would be inappropriate?

When a patient asks the nurse what is the most common cause of myocardial ischemia, which statement is the correct response?

What term should the nurse use to document a detached blood clot?

A 19-year-old presents with abdominal pain in the right lower quadrant. Physical examination reveals rebound tenderness and a low-grade fever. A possible diagnosis would be:

A nurse caring for a patient receiving heparin therapy notes that the patient has a heart rate of 110 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 90/62 mm Hg. A stat CBC shows a platelet count of less than 50,000, which is a low platelet count. The previous platelet level was 375,000. The nurse will:

A 54-year-old reports vomiting blood. Tests reveal portal hypertension. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this condition?

Which plasma lipoprotein level is most concerning when considering the risk of coronary atherosclerosis?