A 54-year-old reports vomiting blood. Tests reveal portal hypertension. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this condition?
Left ventricular failure.
Cirrhosis of the liver.
Thrombosis in the spleen.
Renal stenosis.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice B reason: Cirrhosis of the liver is the most likely cause of portal hypertension. Cirrhosis leads to scarring and fibrosis of the liver tissue, which obstructs blood flow through the liver and increases pressure in the portal vein, resulting in portal hypertension.
Choice A reason: Left ventricular failure is not a common cause of portal hypertension. It primarily affects the heart and can lead to pulmonary congestion and systemic edema, but not portal hypertension.
Choice C reason: Thrombosis in the spleen can contribute to portal hypertension, but it is not the most common cause. Cirrhosis of the liver is a more prevalent and significant cause of this condition.
Choice D reason: Renal stenosis affects the blood vessels supplying the kidneys and is not related to portal hypertension. It can lead to hypertension, but not specifically portal hypertension.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Nifedipine is a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker that primarily affects vascular smooth muscle, leading to vasodilation. While it can lower blood pressure, it does not significantly affect cardiac conduction or rhythm, which is why it is not used as an antidysrhythmic.
Choice B reason:
Verapamil and Diltiazem are calcium channel blockers that affect the movement of calcium into the cells of both the heart and blood vessels. They have a significant impact on cardiac conduction and can be used to treat arrhythmias by slowing down the heart rate and reducing the conduction through the atrioventricular node.
Choice C reason:
Not all three medications have antidysrhythmic properties. Only Verapamil and Diltiazem are effective as antidysrhythmic agents due to their effects on cardiac conduction. Nifedipine does not share these properties and is therefore not used to manage arrhythmias.
Choice D reason:
Nifedipine primarily affects the movement of calcium into the cells of vascular smooth muscle, not the heart. Its main use is in the treatment of hypertension and angina, where its vasodilatory effects are beneficial. It does not significantly impact cardiac rhythm or conduction like Verapamil and Diltiazem do.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Lactulose is the medication of choice for treating elevated ammonia levels, commonly seen in hepatic encephalopathy associated with cirrhosis. It works by reducing the absorption of ammonia from the intestines, converting ammonia to ammonium, which is then excreted. Administering lactulose helps in lowering blood ammonia levels and improving mental status in affected patients.
Choice B reason:
Polyethylene glycol (MiraLax) is a laxative used to treat constipation. It does not have any role in reducing ammonia levels or treating hepatic encephalopathy. Therefore, it is not appropriate for this patient's elevated ammonia condition.
Choice C reason:
0.9% NS (normal saline) is primarily used for fluid resuscitation and electrolyte balance. While essential in managing cirrhotic patients with fluid imbalances, it does not address the elevated ammonia levels directly. Therefore, it is not the treatment of choice for this specific situation.
Choice D reason:
Docusate sodium (Colace) is a stool softener used to treat constipation. It does not have any effect on ammonia levels or the treatment of hepatic encephalopathy. Thus, it is not appropriate for managing elevated ammonia in this patient.
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