A nursing student who is preparing to care for a postoperative patient with deep vein thrombosis asks the nurse why the patient must take heparin rather than warfarin. Which response by the nurse is correct?

The onset of warfarin is delayed.

Warfarin prevents platelet aggregation.

Heparin has fewer adverse effects.

Heparin has a longer half-life.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A reason:
The onset of warfarin is delayed, meaning it takes longer to achieve a therapeutic effect. Warfarin requires several days to adjust to effective anticoagulation levels because it works by inhibiting the synthesis of clotting factors that are already present and active in the bloodstream. In contrast, heparin has an immediate anticoagulant effect when administered, which is crucial for patients with acute conditions like deep vein thrombosis.

Choice B reason:
Warfarin does not prevent platelet aggregation. Instead, it works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, which are essential for blood coagulation. Platelet aggregation is primarily inhibited by antiplatelet drugs like aspirin or clopidogrel, not anticoagulants like warfarin.

Choice C reason:
Heparin does not necessarily have fewer adverse effects compared to warfarin. Both anticoagulants have their specific risks and side effects. Heparin is preferred in acute settings due to its rapid onset of action, but it can cause complications like heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), which requires careful monitoring.

Choice D reason:
Heparin does not have a longer half-life than warfarin. In fact, heparin's half-life is relatively short, which is why it is often administered via continuous infusion or frequent subcutaneous injections. Warfarin has a longer half-life, but its delayed onset of action makes it less suitable for immediate anticoagulation needs.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason:
Aspirin is an antiplatelet medication used to prevent blood clots in the arteries but is not the primary treatment for deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which is likely in this scenario. The patient's symptoms suggest a possible DVT, which requires anticoagulation therapy.

Choice B reason:
Clopidogrel (Plavix) is another antiplatelet medication, similar to aspirin, and is not the primary treatment for DVT. It is more commonly used to prevent clotting in arterial diseases such as coronary artery disease but not for venous thromboembolism.

Choice C reason:
Enoxaparin (Lovenox) is a low molecular weight heparin used for the initial treatment of DVT. It is an anticoagulant that helps prevent further clot formation and allows the body to break down the existing clot. Given the patient's symptoms, enoxaparin is the appropriate medication to anticipate for managing DVT.

Choice D reason:
Warfarin (Coumadin) is an oral anticoagulant used for long-term prevention of thromboembolism but is not typically used for initial DVT treatment due to its slow onset of action. Enoxaparin or other forms of heparin are preferred for immediate anticoagulation.

A. Metoprolol B. Amiodarone C. Lidocaine D. Verapamil

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason:
Metoprolol is a beta-blocker that primarily affects the heart by reducing heart rate and contractility. It does not specifically block the efflux of potassium. Beta-blockers are used to manage high blood pressure, angina, and certain arrhythmias, but they do not target potassium channels directly.

Choice B reason:
Amiodarone is an antiarrhythmic medication that blocks the efflux of potassium from cardiac cells. It prolongs the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential by inhibiting potassium channels, which helps to stabilize cardiac rhythms and prevent arrhythmias. This mechanism makes amiodarone effective in treating various types of arrhythmias.

Choice C reason:
Lidocaine is a class IB antiarrhythmic that primarily blocks sodium channels in the heart. It is used to treat acute ventricular arrhythmias, especially after a myocardial infarction. While it affects the electrical activity of the heart, it does not specifically block potassium efflux.

Choice D reason:
Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker that primarily affects the influx of calcium into cardiac and smooth muscle cells. It is used to treat hypertension, angina, and certain arrhythmias, but it does not block potassium efflux.

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A nursing student who is preparing to care for a postoperative patient with deep vein thrombosis asks the nurse why the patient must take heparin rather than warfarin. Which response by the nurse is correct?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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