A patient, newly diagnosed with an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA), wants to know the etiology of his illness. Which statement by the nurse reflects knowledge of the pathophysiology of this disease?
Atherosclerosis of the abdominal aorta has caused the vessel to become narrowed. Less oxygenated blood is being delivered to your feet.
Your aneurysm was formed because of the development of a blood clot in the artery in your abdomen.
The strep bacteria has weakened the valves in your artery.
Chronic hypertension weakened the walls of your artery causing an outpouching of the arterial vessel wall.
The Correct Answer is D
A. Atherosclerosis typically leads to vessel narrowing, but it does not specifically describe the formation of an aneurysm, which involves wall weakening and outpouching rather than just narrowing.
B. While a blood clot can be a complication of an AAA, it is not the primary cause of aneurysm formation. An AAA results from wall weakness rather than a clot.
C. Streptococcal bacteria are not related to the development of abdominal aortic aneurysms; aneurysms are associated with chronic conditions affecting the vascular wall, not bacterial infections.
D. Chronic hypertension contributes to the weakening of the arterial walls, leading to the formation of an aneurysm as the pressure causes the wall to bulge or outpouch. This correctly reflects the pathophysiology of AAA.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Benign prostatic hypertrophy is a condition affecting the prostate in men, so it is not applicable in this case.
B. Ovarian cancer may cause pelvic pain, but the specific symptoms of abnormal discharge and acute pain suggest a more immediate infection rather than cancer.
C. A kidney stone typically presents with flank pain and may cause urinary symptoms, but it would not typically cause vaginal discharge.
D. A chlamydia infection can cause abnormal vaginal discharge and pelvic pain, and it is a common sexually transmitted infection presenting with these symptoms, consistent with the patient's history.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Stable angina is characterized by chest pain or discomfort that occurs with physical exertion or stress and is relieved with rest or nitroglycerin.
B. Pulmonary embolus typically causes sudden shortness of breath, chest pain, and possible hemoptysis, but not a pattern that resolves with rest or cessation of activity.
C. Myocardial infarction (MI) typically causes prolonged chest pain that does not resolve quickly and is not relieved by rest.
D. Unstable angina is more severe than stable angina, occurring at rest or with minimal activity, and does not resolve quickly. It also increases in frequency and intensity over time.
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