A woman is evaluated by a nurse practitioner. She describes a two-day history of an abnormal vaginal discharge and constant pelvic-area pain. She also states "It hurts to move at all." The pain pattern and other S&S are consistent with

benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH).

ovarian cancer.

a kidney stone.

a chlamydia infection.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A. Benign prostatic hypertrophy is a condition affecting the prostate in men, so it is not applicable in this case.

B. Ovarian cancer may cause pelvic pain, but the specific symptoms of abnormal discharge and acute pain suggest a more immediate infection rather than cancer.

C. A kidney stone typically presents with flank pain and may cause urinary symptoms, but it would not typically cause vaginal discharge.

D. A chlamydia infection can cause abnormal vaginal discharge and pelvic pain, and it is a common sexually transmitted infection presenting with these symptoms, consistent with the patient's history.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. While the kidneys do excrete HCO3 to help in metabolic compensation, this process is slower than respiratory compensation.

B. An increase in respiratory rate would further decrease CO2, worsening the alkalosis rather than compensating for it.

C. Creating more HCO3 would not compensate for respiratory alkalosis and would actually increase the pH further.

D. The body will decrease the respiratory rate to retain more CO2, helping to lower the pH and partially correct the alkalosis.

A. Increase capillary refill time. B. Rumbling heart murmur. C. Intermittent claudication. D. Jugular venous distension.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. An increased capillary refill time suggests reduced perfusion and may indicate decreased cardiac output, which is critical to assess in patients with atrial fibrillation as it can lead to hemodynamic instability.

B. A rumbling heart murmur may suggest valvular disease but is not specifically indicative of decreased cardiac output in this scenario.

C. Intermittent claudication typically indicates peripheral arterial disease and is not a direct sign of decreased cardiac output.

D. Jugular venous distension can indicate fluid overload or right-sided heart failure, but it is not the most direct indicator of decreased cardiac output compared to capillary refill time.

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A woman is evaluated by a nurse practitioner. She describes a two-day history of an abnormal vaginal discharge and constant pelvic-area pain. She also states "It hurts to move at all." The pain pattern and other S&S are consistent with

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A patient's ABG results are: pH 7.50, PCO2 25, HCO3 25, PO2 80. Which finding should the nurse expect as the body compensates for the acid-base imbalance?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Which assessment finding alerts the nurse to the possibility of decreased cardiac output in the patient who suddenly develops atrial fibrillation?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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