A woman is evaluated by a nurse practitioner. She describes a two-day history of an abnormal vaginal discharge and constant pelvic-area pain. She also states "It hurts to move at all." The pain pattern and other S&S are consistent with

benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH).

ovarian cancer.

a kidney stone.

a chlamydia infection.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A. Benign prostatic hypertrophy is a condition affecting the prostate in men, so it is not applicable in this case.

B. Ovarian cancer may cause pelvic pain, but the specific symptoms of abnormal discharge and acute pain suggest a more immediate infection rather than cancer.

C. A kidney stone typically presents with flank pain and may cause urinary symptoms, but it would not typically cause vaginal discharge.

D. A chlamydia infection can cause abnormal vaginal discharge and pelvic pain, and it is a common sexually transmitted infection presenting with these symptoms, consistent with the patient's history.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. In post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, the immune response to strep infection results in inflammatory changes in the glomeruli, making the capillaries "leaky." This allows protein and red blood cells to pass into the urine, causing proteinuria and hematuria.

B. Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis is not characterized by an autoantibody attack on the renal artery. It is primarily an immune-mediated inflammatory response in the glomeruli.

C. While casts may appear in the urine, the primary issue is glomerular capillary inflammation and permeability rather than direct leaking of casts.

D. Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis typically results in a decreased GFR due to inflammation and reduced kidney function, not an increase.

A. activation of the clotting cascade after plaque rupture. B. the development of arteriogenesis, which is indicative of acute coronary syndromes. C. obstruction of a coronary vein and consequent death to the myocardium. D. infiltrations of high-density lipoproteins into the arterial wall, causing the artery to rupture.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Plaque rupture in coronary artery disease can expose the underlying tissue, leading to activation of the clotting cascade and thrombus formation. This can cause sudden worsening of symptoms due to reduced or obstructed blood flow in the coronary artery.

B. Arteriogenesis refers to the development of collateral arteries over time, which is a slow, compensatory process rather than an acute event leading to worsening symptoms.

C. Coronary veins are not typically obstructed in CAD; instead, coronary arteries are affected, leading to reduced oxygen supply to the myocardium.

D. High-density lipoproteins (HDL) are known as "good cholesterol" and help clear arterial plaques, so they do not contribute to arterial rupture.

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A woman is evaluated by a nurse practitioner. She describes a two-day history of an abnormal vaginal discharge and constant pelvic-area pain. She also states "It hurts to move at all." The pain pattern and other S&S are consistent with

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A week after recovering from strep throat, a child is diagnosed with post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis. The pathophysiology of glomerulonephritis in this context usually includes:

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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