A patient is prescribed 800 mg of quetiapine per day, divided into two doses. If quetiapine is available in 200 mg tablets, how many tablets should be given per dose?
2 tablets.
4 tablets.
5 tablets.
3 tablets.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: The total daily dose of quetiapine is 800 mg, divided into two doses, meaning each dose is 400 mg (800 mg ÷ 2). With 200 mg tablets, each dose requires 400 mg ÷ 200 mg = 2 tablets. This is the correct calculation for the number of tablets per dose.
Choice B reason: Four tablets per dose would result in 800 mg per dose (4 × 200 mg), totaling 1600 mg daily, which doubles the prescribed daily dose of 800 mg. This is incorrect and could lead to an overdose.
Choice C reason: Five tablets per dose would result in 1000 mg per dose (5 × 200 mg), totaling 2000 mg daily, far exceeding the prescribed 800 mg daily dose. This is incorrect and unsafe.
Choice D reason: Three tablets per dose would result in 600 mg per dose (3 × 200 mg), totaling 1200 mg daily, which exceeds the prescribed 800 mg daily dose. This is incorrect and not aligned with the prescription.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Pseudoparkinsonism involves tremors, shuffling gait, rigidity, and bradykinesia, but it does not cause high fever, blood pressure instability, or diaphoresis.
Choice B reason: Tardive dyskinesia involves involuntary movements such as lip smacking, tongue protrusion, or grimacing, and it develops gradually after long-term medication use. It does not cause acute systemic symptoms.
Choice C reason: Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is a rare but life-threatening reaction to antipsychotics. It presents with hyperpyrexia, autonomic instability (blood pressure changes, diaphoresis), muscle rigidity, and altered mental status. This fits the scenario.
Choice D reason: Acute dystonia is characterized by sudden, severe muscle contractions (often of the neck, eyes, or jaw) but does not include fever or autonomic instability.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: While mood stabilizers are essential in treatment, medication cannot be safely administered before completing an assessment of risk and safety.
Choice B reason: The priority in this scenario is to assess safety, as John is at risk of harming himself or others due to reckless behavior during mania and suicidal ideation during depression. Safety always precedes treatment or education.
Choice C reason: Therapy is a valuable part of long-term management, but it is not the immediate priority when safety concerns exist.
Choice D reason: Education is important but cannot come before determining immediate risk and ensuring safety.
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