A parent brings a 2-week-old infant to a clinic for a phenylketonuria rescreening blood test. The test indicates a serum phenylalanine level of 1 mg/dL (60.5 mcmol/L). The nurse reviews this result and makes which interpretation?
It is inconclusive
it is negative
it requires rescreening at age 6 weeks.
It is positive
The Correct Answer is B
A. It is inconclusive
Explanation: A serum phenylalanine level within the normal range is considered conclusive in ruling out phenylketonuria. Inconclusive results typically occur when there are issues with the sample or testing process.
B. It is negative
Explanation:
A serum phenylalanine level of 1 mg/dL (60.5 mcmol/L) in a 2-week-old infant is within the normal range. In the context of phenylketonuria (PKU) screening, a "negative" result means that the phenylalanine levels are within the expected range, and there is no evidence of phenylketonuria.
C. It requires rescreening at age 6 weeks.
Explanation: If the initial screening result is within the normal range, rescreening at age 6 weeks may not be necessary for phenylketonuria. The timing and need for rescreening may vary based on local protocols and individual patient factors.
D. It is positive
Explanation: A positive result for phenylketonuria would indicate that the serum phenylalanine levels are elevated, suggesting a potential diagnosis of PKU. In this case, the result is negative, meaning there is no evidence of PKU.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Ribbon-like stools
Explanation: Ribbon-like or pencil-thin stools are associated with conditions affecting the rectum, such as colorectal cancer, but they are not a typical sign of intussusception.
B. Profuse projectile vomiting
Explanation: Profuse projectile vomiting is not a typical sign of intussusception. Vomiting may occur, but it is not the primary characteristic feature.
C. Bright red blood and mucus in the stools
Explanation:
Intussusception is a condition in which one part of the intestine slides into another, causing a blockage. One of the classic signs of intussusception is the presence of "currant jelly" stools, which are characterized by a mixture of bright red blood and mucus in the stools. This occurs due to the compression of the blood vessels in the intestine, leading to bleeding and mucosal discharge.
D. Watery diarrhea
Explanation: Watery diarrhea is not a typical sign of intussusception. The condition is more commonly associated with abdominal pain, vomiting, and the characteristic "currant jelly" stools.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Valley fever
Explanation: Valley fever is a respiratory infection caused by inhaling spores of the Coccidioides fungus. It is not related to tinea pedis.
B. Shingles
Explanation: Shingles is a painful rash caused by the varicella-zoster virus. It is not related to tinea pedis.
C. Fever blister
Explanation: A fever blister is another term for a cold sore, typically caused by the herpes simplex virus. It is not related to tinea pedis, which is a fungal infection of the feet.
D. "Athlete's foot"
Explanation:
Tinea pedis is commonly known as athlete's foot. It is a fungal infection that affects the skin of the feet, particularly the spaces between the toes. The condition is often associated with warm and moist environments, such as those found in athletic shoes, hence the term "athlete's foot."
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