A parent brings a 2-week-old infant to a clinic for a phenylketonuria rescreening blood test. The test indicates a serum phenylalanine level of 1 mg/dL (60.5 mcmol/L). The nurse reviews this result and makes which interpretation?
It is inconclusive
it is negative
it requires rescreening at age 6 weeks.
It is positive
The Correct Answer is B
A. It is inconclusive
Explanation: A serum phenylalanine level within the normal range is considered conclusive in ruling out phenylketonuria. Inconclusive results typically occur when there are issues with the sample or testing process.
B. It is negative
Explanation:
A serum phenylalanine level of 1 mg/dL (60.5 mcmol/L) in a 2-week-old infant is within the normal range. In the context of phenylketonuria (PKU) screening, a "negative" result means that the phenylalanine levels are within the expected range, and there is no evidence of phenylketonuria.
C. It requires rescreening at age 6 weeks.
Explanation: If the initial screening result is within the normal range, rescreening at age 6 weeks may not be necessary for phenylketonuria. The timing and need for rescreening may vary based on local protocols and individual patient factors.
D. It is positive
Explanation: A positive result for phenylketonuria would indicate that the serum phenylalanine levels are elevated, suggesting a potential diagnosis of PKU. In this case, the result is negative, meaning there is no evidence of PKU.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. "This shunting allows oxygenated and unoxygenated blood to mix."
Explanation: This statement is correct. In PDA, the shunting of blood between the aorta and pulmonary artery allows oxygenated and unoxygenated blood to mix, leading to decreased oxygen saturation in the systemic circulation.
B. "Blood is shunted to the right side of the heart."
Explanation: This statement is correct. In PDA, blood is shunted from the left side of the heart (aorta) to the right side of the heart (pulmonary artery).
C. "This shunting results in increased pulmonary blood flow."
Explanation: This statement is correct. PDA leads to increased pulmonary blood flow as a result of the shunting of blood from the aorta to the pulmonary artery.
D. "Blood is shunted to the left side of the heart."
Explanation:
A patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) is a congenital heart defect where the ductus arteriosus, a fetal blood vessel that normally closes shortly after birth, remains open. In PDA, blood is shunted from the aorta (left side of the heart) to the pulmonary artery (right side of the heart), resulting in increased pulmonary blood flow. Therefore, the correct statement is that "Blood is shunted to the right side of the heart."
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Whitish vesicles located across the chest:
Incorrect: This description does not match the characteristic appearance or location of Koplik's spots in measles.
B. Small blue-white spots with a red base found on the buccal mucosa:
Correct Answer: Koplik's spots are small, blue-white spots with a red base that typically appear on the buccal mucosa (inner lining of the cheeks). These spots are characteristic of measles and are considered a diagnostic feature.
C. Pinpoint petechiae noted on both legs:
Incorrect: Petechiae are small, reddish-purple spots that result from bleeding under the skin. They are not characteristic of Koplik's spots in measles.
D. Petechiae spots that are reddish and pinpoint on the soft palate:
Incorrect: While petechiae can occur in various conditions, they are not characteristic of Koplik's spots in measles. Koplik's spots specifically manifest as small blue-white spots on the buccal mucosa.
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