A nursery nurse is attending the birth of a post-term infant.
Meconium aspiration syndrome
macrosomia
intraventricular hemorrhage
bronchopulmonary dysplasia
Correct Answer : A,B
Rationale for Correct Choices
• Meconium aspiration syndrome: The presence of thick green amniotic fluid indicates meconium-stained fluid, which the post-term infant may aspirate during delivery. Meconium aspiration can obstruct the airways, cause chemical pneumonitis, and lead to respiratory distress requiring immediate intervention and supportive care.
• Macrosomia: Post-term infants are at increased risk of macrosomia due to prolonged gestation and continued growth in utero. Macrosomic infants face complications such as difficult labor, shoulder dystocia, and birth injuries, necessitating careful monitoring and potential interventions during delivery.
Rationale for Incorrect Choices
• Intraventricular hemorrhage: This condition is primarily associated with preterm infants due to fragile germinal matrix vasculature. The post-term infant in this scenario is less likely to develop intraventricular hemorrhage.
• Bronchopulmonary dysplasia: Chronic lung disease usually develops in preterm infants who have required prolonged mechanical ventilation or oxygen therapy. The term post-term infant is not at high risk for this condition immediately after birth.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Metronidazole: This is the treatment of choice for bacterial vaginosis because it effectively targets anaerobic bacteria such as Gardnerella vaginalis, the main causative organism.
B. Doxycycline: This antibiotic is primarily used to treat Chlamydia trachomatis infections and is not effective for bacterial vaginosis.
C. Azithromycin: This medication is effective for Chlamydia trachomatis and Mycoplasma genitalium infections, not for bacterial vaginosis caused by anaerobes.
D. Acyclovir: This antiviral agent is used to treat herpes simplex virus infections and has no therapeutic effect against bacterial pathogens.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Rationale:
A. The client reports a pain level of 2 on a 0 to 10 scale after administration of pain medication: A pain level of 2 indicates adequate pain control following surgery, showing that the prescribed analgesic regimen is effective. This finding does not require reporting.
B. The client has a urine output of 50 mL/hr after removal of the indwelling urinary catheter: A urine output of 50 mL/hr is within normal limits and indicates adequate renal perfusion. This finding suggests that kidney function and fluid balance are appropriate after surgery.
C. The client has a wound dressing saturated with sanguineous drainage after it was reinforced: Saturation of the surgical dressing with sanguineous drainage can indicate active bleeding or hemorrhage. Because this exceeds normal postoperative drainage and persists after reinforcement, it requires immediate notification of the provider.
D. The client has an oxygen saturation level of 96% after oxygen 2 L/min via nasal cannula was applied: An oxygen saturation of 96% indicates effective oxygenation and a positive response to therapy. This finding is within normal range and does not signal a complication.
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