A nurse reviewing a client's chart reads that the client was observed having a complex partial seizure with automatisms of the face. What does the nurse understand this to mean?

During a seizure, the client lost bladder control

During a seizure, the client's eyes remained fixed and dilated

During a seizure, the client made involuntary groaning sounds

During a seizure, the client had involuntary facial movements, such as lip-smacking

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A Reason: This choice is incorrect. Losing bladder control is not a feature of complex partial seizures, but rather of generalized tonic-clonic seizures. Complex partial seizures are a type of focal seizures that affect a specific area of the brain and cause impaired awareness and automatisms. Automatisms are repetitive and involuntary movements or behaviors that occur during a seizure.

Choice B Reason: This choice is incorrect. Having fixed and dilated eyes is not a feature of complex partial seizures, but rather of brain death or severe brain injury. Complex partial seizures do not affect the pupils or eye movements, but rather the level of consciousness and motor activity.

Choice C Reason: This choice is incorrect. Making involuntary groaning sounds is not a feature of complex partial seizures, but rather of simple partial seizures. Simple partial seizures are a type of focal seizures that affect a specific area of the brain and do not impair awareness or cause automatisms. They can cause sensory, motor, or psychic symptoms, such as auditory or visual hallucinations, tingling sensations, or emotional changes.

Choice D Reason: This is the correct choice. Having involuntary facial movements, such as lip-smacking, is a feature of complex partial seizures. Complex partial seizures often originate from the temporal lobe of the brain, which is involved in memory, language, and emotion. They can cause automatisms that affect the mouth, face, or hands, such as chewing, swallowing, picking, or fidgeting.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason: This is the correct answer because both ulcerative colitis and Crohn's disease are inflammatory bowel diseases (IBD) that cause chronic inflammation of the digestive tract. The inflammation can cause symptoms such as abdominal pain, diarrhea, bleeding, weight loss, or fever. The nurse should educate the client on how to manage inflammation and prevent complications.

Choice B reason: This is incorrect because both ulcerative colitis and Crohn's disease do not affect the entire alimentary canal, but different parts of it. Ulcerative colitis affects only the colon (large intestine) and rectum, while Crohn's disease can affect any part of the digestive tract from mouth to anus, most commonly the ileum (the last part of the small intestine). The nurse should explain the differences in location and extent of
the diseases.

Choice C reason: This is incorrect because both ulcerative colitis and Crohn's disease do not always require a bowel diversion, but only in some cases. A bowel diversion is a surgical procedure that creates an opening (stoma) in the abdomen to divert fecal matter into an external bag or pouch. It may be done to treat severe complications such as perforation, obstruction, fistula, or cancer. The nurse should inform the client about the indications, types, and care of bowel diversions.

Choice D reason: This is incorrect because both ulcerative colitis and Crohn's disease are not caused by low-fat, high-fiber diets, but by unknown factors. The exact causes of IBD are not clear, but they may involve genetic, immune, environmental, or microbial factors. Low-fat, high-fiber diets may help prevent or reduce symptoms of IBD, but they do not cause them. The nurse should advise the client on how to follow a balanced and nutritious diet that suits their individual needs and preferences.

A. The client's bladder becomes distended. B. The client states having a severe headache. C. The client's blood pressure becomes elevated. D. The client states having nasal congestion.

Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","D"]

Explanation

Choice A Reason: A distended bladder is one of the most common triggers of autonomic dysreflexia, which is a life-threatening condition that occurs in clients with spinal cord injuries above T-6. The bladder becomes overfilled and stimulates the sympathetic nervous system, causing vasoconstriction and hypertension.

Choice B Reason: A severe headache is one of the most common symptoms of autonomic dysreflexia, caused by the increased blood pressure in the brain. The headache may be accompanied by blurred vision, sweating, flushing, or anxiety.

Choice C Reason: An elevated blood pressure is the hallmark sign of autonomic dysreflexia, which can reach dangerously high levels and cause stroke, seizure, or death. The blood pressure may rise up to 300/160 mmHg or higher.

Choice D Reason: Nasal congestion is another possible trigger of autonomic dysreflexia, as it stimulates the nasal mucosa and activates the sympathetic nervous system. Other potential triggers include bowel impaction, skin irritation, tight clothing, or temperature changes.

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A nurse reviewing a client's chart reads that the client was observed having a complex partial seizure with automatisms of the face. What does the nurse understand this to mean?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a client who has ulcerative colitis and is teaching the client about the common link with Crohn's disease. Which of the following information should the nurse include?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a client who has a T-4 spinal cord injury. Which of the following client findings should the nurse identify as an indication the client is at risk for experiencing autonomic dysreflexia?

Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","D"]

Explanation

A nurse collects the health history of a 65-year-old client. Which of the following risk factors in the client's history puts the client at the highest risk for embolic stroke?

A client is diagnosed with a problem involving the inner ear. Which is the most common client complaint associated with a problem involving this part of the ear?

A nurse is assessing a client who has suffered a traumatic brain injury. When the nurse applies a stimuli to the client, which of the following responses by the client indicates that the client has suffered an extensive cervical spine injury?

A nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with an inner ear infection. Which of the following manifestations will the nurse expect the client to report?

A nurse is caring for a client who has burns to his face, ears, and eyelids. The nurse should identify which of the following is the priority finding to report to the provider?

A client diagnosed with Barrett's esophagus asks how he developed this. Which of the following responses by the nurse is most accurate?

A client arrives to the emergency department after falling from a ladder. The client has a loss of sensation and flaccid paralysis. Which of the following complications of an acute spinal cord injury does the nurse suspect?