A client's chart indicates that they are legally blind. Which of the following is the definition of legally blind?
Full vision loss in at least one eye
The best-corrected vision in the better eye of 20/200 or less
Inability to see clearly from 200 feet away without corrective lenses
Bilateral visual impairment of 20/60 or greater
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A Reason: This is incorrect because full vision loss in one eye does not necessarily mean that the person is legally blind. Legal blindness depends on the visual acuity and visual field of both eyes.
Choice B Reason: This is correct because legal blindness is defined by the World Health Organization (WHO) as having a visual acuity of 20/200 or worse in the better eye with the best possible correction, such as glasses or contact lenses. This means that the person can see at 20 feet what a normal person can see at 200 feet.
Choice C Reason: This is incorrect because inability to see clearly from 200 feet away without corrective lenses may indicate nearsightedness or myopia, but not legal blindness. Nearsightedness can be corrected with lenses or surgery.
Choice D Reason: This is incorrect because bilateral visual impairment of 20/60 or greater does not meet the criteria for legal blindness. Visual impairment is defined by WHO as having a visual acuity of less than 20/60 but better than 20/200 in the better eye with the best possible correction.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: This is the correct answer because bacterial meningitis is a medical emergency that requires immediate antibiotic therapy to prevent complications and death.
Choice B reason: This is incorrect because documenting intake and output is not a priority action for a child with bacterial meningitis. Fluid balance is important, but not as urgent as antibiotic administration.
Choice C reason: This is incorrect because reducing environmental stimuli is a supportive measure that can help reduce headache and photophobia, but it is not a priority action for a child with bacterial meningitis. The nurse should focus on preventing infection spread and monitoring for signs of increased intracranial pressure.
Choice D reason: This is incorrect because maintaining seizure precautions is a preventive measure that can help protect the child from injury, but it is not a priority action for a child with bacterial meningitis. The nurse should administer anticonvulsants as prescribed and observe for seizure activity, but the main goal is to treat the infection.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A Reason: Requesting the charge nurse put the client on the surgery schedule is not the best first action, as it does not address the urgency of the situation. The client may have a perforated appendix, which is a life-threatening complication that requires immediate intervention.
Choice B Reason: Documenting the WBC count from the morning labs is not the best first action, as it does not address the client's current condition. The WBC count may be elevated due to inflammation or infection, but it does not indicate the severity of the problem.
Choice C Reason: This is the correct choice. Notifying the healthcare provider is the best first action, as it alerts them to the possibility of a perforated appendix and allows them to order appropriate tests and treatments.
Choice D Reason: Providing an antiemetic is not the best first action, as it does not address the underlying cause of the vomiting. The client may have peritonitis, which is inflammation of the abdominal cavity due to leakage of intestinal contents. An antiemetic may mask this symptom and delay diagnosis and treatment.
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