A nurse recently administered filgrastim intravenously to a client who has cancer and is receiving cytotoxic chemotherapy.
For which of the following data, discovered after the medication was administered, should the nurse file an incident report?
The client had chemotherapy 12 hr before the medication was administered.
The medication vial sat at room temperature for 2 hr before it was administered.
The client's absolute neutrophil count was 2,500/mm³ before the medication was administered.
The nurse flushed the client's IV line with dextrose 5% in water before and after the medication was administered.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale: Administering filgrastim after chemotherapy is a standard practice to boost white blood cell count. However, filgrastim should not be given within 24 hours before or after chemotherapy, as it can affect the efficacy and increase the risk of side effects. Administering the medication 12 hours after chemotherapy falls within this contraindicated window, necessitating an incident report.
Choice B rationale: Filgrastim can be stored at room temperature for short periods, and 2 hours is generally within acceptable limits for stability.
Choice C rationale: An absolute neutrophil count of 2,500/mm³ is within the normal range, and there is no contraindication for administering filgrastim.
Choice D rationale: Flushing the client's IV line with dextrose 5% in water before and after administering filgrastim is not appropriate, as this medication is typically administered with saline solution. Using an incorrect flushing solution could affect the medication's efficacy or compatibility, necessitating an incident report.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The first action the nurse should take is to assess the client for adverse reactions.
It is important to ensure the client’s safety and well-being before taking any further actions.
Choice A is wrong because filing an incident report is not the first action the nurse should take.
Choice B is wrong because determining factors that led to the omission is not the first action the nurse should take.
Choice D is wrong because reporting the missed dosage to the client’s provider is not the first action the nurse should take.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Ceftriaxone is contraindicated for this client because it is a cephalosporin antibiotic, which has a similar structure to penicillin and can cause cross-reactivity in individuals with a penicillin allergy.
Choice A is wrong because Vancomycin is not a beta-lactam antibiotic and does not have cross-reactivity with penicillin.
Choice B is wrong because Clarithromycin is a macrolide antibiotic and does not have cross-reactivity with penicillin.
Choice C is wrong because Metronidazole is a nitroimidazole antibiotic and does not have cross-reactivity with penicillin.
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