A nurse is caring for a client who is to start therapy with lovastatin.
The nurse should prepare the client for which of the following diagnostic assessments?
Western blot analysis.
Pancreatic enzymes.
Exercise electrocardiography.
Liver function tests.
The Correct Answer is D
Lovastatin is a lipid-lowering medication that belongs to the statin drug class.
It is used to treat and prevent coronary heart disease and hypercholesterolemia.
Before starting therapy with lovastatin, liver function tests should be performed to establish a baseline and monitor for any potential adverse effects on the liver.
Choice A is wrong because Western blot analysis, is not the correct answer because it is a laboratory technique used to detect specific proteins in a sample, not to monitor liver function.
Choice B is wrong because Pancreatic enzymes, is not the correct answer because it refers to enzymes produced by the pancreas that aid in digestion, not liver function.
Choice C is wrong because Exercise electrocardiography, is not the correct answer because it is a diagnostic test used to assess the heart’s response to physical stress, not liver function.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Metformin is an antidiabetic agent used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus.
It works by decreasing carbohydrate absorption from the gut, increasing glucose uptake in peripheral tissues in the presence of insulin, and reducing hepatic gluconeogenesis.
In normal patients, metformin ingestion is not associated with hypoglycemia.
However, it is still important to check the client’s glucose level to ensure that it is within a safe range.
Choice A is wrong because collecting the client’s uric acid level is not necessary after accidental administration of metformin.
Choice B is wrong because obtaining the client’s HDL level is not necessary after accidental administration of metformin.
Choice D is wrong because monitoring the client’s thyroid function levels is not necessary after accidental administration of metformin.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is choice A. Increased pulse rate.
An aPTT of 90 seconds is much higher than the normal range of 30-40 seconds, which means the blood takes longer to clot and the client is at risk of bleeding. An increased pulse rate is a sign of blood loss and shock.
Choice B is wrong because increased blood pressure is not a sign of bleeding, but rather a sign of hypertension or stress.
Choice C is wrong because decreased temperature is not a sign of bleeding, but rather a sign of hypothermia or infection.
Choice D is wrong because decreased respiratory rate is not a sign of bleeding, but rather a sign of respiratory depression or sedation.
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