A nurse receives report about a client who is in labor and is having contractions 4 min apart. Which of the following patterns should the nurse expect on the fetal monitoring tracing?
Contractions that last 45 seconds each with a 3 min rest between contractions
Contractions that last for 60 seconds each with a 3-min rest between contractions
Contractions that last for 60 seconds each with a 4-min rest between contractions
A contraction that lasts 4 min followed by a period of relaxation
The Correct Answer is B
A. Contractions that last 45 seconds each with a 3-minute rest between contractions are less common. Typically, contractions last around 60 seconds during active labor.
B. Contractions that last for 60 seconds each with a 3-min rest between contractions is the expected pattern.
During active labor, contractions are commonly around 60 seconds in duration, and they occur approximately every 4-5 minutes.
C. Contractions that last for 60 seconds each with a 4-min rest between contractions are not consistent with the usual pattern of contractions in active labor. A 4-minute rest between contractions would be an extended interval.
D. A contraction that lasts for 4 minutes followed by a period of relaxation is not typical and may indicate a problem. Normal contractions usually last around 60 seconds or less.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. After notifying the provider, the nurse should massage the client’s fundus. This action helps to contract the uterus and reduce bleeding, which is crucial in managing hypovolemic shock due to postpartum hemorrhage.
B. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter: This action is important for monitoring urine output, which is a key indicator of renal perfusion and overall fluid status. However, it is not the immediate priority when managing hypovolemic shock due to postpartum hemorrhage.
C. Administer oxygen at 10 L/min: Providing oxygen is crucial to ensure adequate tissue oxygenation, especially in a shock state. While important, it comes after addressing the source of bleeding, which is the primary cause of the hypovolemic shock.
D. Elevate the client’s right hip: This action helps to prevent uterine displacement and improve venous return, which can be beneficial. However, it is not the first step in managing hypovolemic shock due to postpartum hemorrhage.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is B. The client will experience a successful induction of labor.
A. The Bishop score is a pre-induction assessment that evaluates several factors, including cervical dilation, effacement, consistency, position, and fetal station. It is used to predict the likelihood of a successful induction of labor. A high Bishop score indicates favorable conditions for induction.
B. Correct. A higher Bishop score indicates a more favorable cervix for induction, and the chances of a successful induction of labor are increased.
C. Lower back pain during labor is not specifically associated with the Bishop score. It can be a common complaint during labor, but it is not predicted by the Bishop score.
D. Dinoprostone is a prostaglandin used for cervical ripening. If the Bishop score indicates an unfavorable cervix, dinoprostone or other cervical ripening agents may be considered to prepare the cervix for induction.
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