A nurse reads in a drug information guide that PO (oral) morphine has a high first-pass effect. Which of the following statements would demonstrate the nurse's understanding of the first-pass effect?
The drug will be most effective when given orally.
The drug will be more effective when given in a non-enteral route (IV, SQ).
The drug whether given oral or IV will have the same effect.
The drug is excreted by the lungs at a slower rate than most medications.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason:
Morphine is not most effective when given orally due to the high first-pass effect. The first-pass effect refers to the metabolism of a drug in the liver immediately after it enters the bloodstream from the gastrointestinal tract, significantly reducing the amount of active drug that reaches systemic circulation. Therefore, oral administration of morphine is not the most effective route because much of it is metabolized before it can exert its effect.
Choice B reason:
Morphine will be more effective when given via a non-enteral route such as intravenous (IV) or subcutaneous (SQ) because these routes bypass the liver, thereby avoiding the first-pass metabolism. This allows a higher concentration of the active drug to reach the systemic circulation, providing a more potent and effective pain relief.
Choice C reason:
Oral and IV administration of morphine do not have the same effect due to the first-pass metabolism. When morphine is administered orally, a significant amount is metabolized by the liver before it reaches the systemic circulation, whereas IV administration delivers the drug directly into the bloodstream, bypassing the liver and allowing a higher active concentration.
Choice D reason:
Morphine is not primarily excreted by the lungs; it is mainly metabolized by the liver and excreted by the kidneys. This statement does not accurately demonstrate an understanding of the first-pass effect or the pharmacokinetics of morphine.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Holding the heparin and notifying the provider is the appropriate action. The significant drop in platelet count suggests the possibility of heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), a serious complication of heparin therapy. Immediate discontinuation of heparin and further evaluation are necessary to manage this condition.
Choice B reason:
Requesting an order for vitamin K (phytonadione) is not appropriate in this scenario. Vitamin K is used to reverse the effects of warfarin, not heparin. The issue here is the potential for HIT, not an over-anticoagulation that requires vitamin K.
Choice C reason:
While requesting a PTT test is part of managing anticoagulation therapy, it is not the immediate priority in this case. The significant drop in platelet count is more concerning for HIT, which requires stopping heparin and notifying the provider for further evaluation.
Choice D reason:
Administering oxygen and notifying the provider is not specific to managing the issue of a significantly low platelet count in a patient on heparin. The primary concern here is the potential for HIT, which necessitates stopping the heparin.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Hepatocellular jaundice occurs due to damage or dysfunction of the liver cells (hepatocytes). This type of jaundice is associated with liver diseases such as hepatitis or cirrhosis, where the liver cannot effectively process bilirubin. It is not directly related to increased red blood cell breakdown but rather to the liver’s inability to handle bilirubin.
Choice B reason:
Hemolytic jaundice results from an increased breakdown of red blood cells, leading to a higher production of bilirubin, which the liver cannot clear fast enough. This condition causes an overload of bilirubin in the blood, resulting in jaundice. Hemolytic jaundice is typically seen in conditions such as hemolytic anemia, where red blood cell destruction exceeds the liver's ability to process and excrete bilirubin.
Choice C reason:
Obstructive jaundice is caused by a blockage in the bile ducts, preventing bilirubin from being excreted into the digestive system. This blockage can result from gallstones, tumors, or strictures. It is not related to the increased breakdown of red blood cells but rather to the obstruction of bile flow, leading to bilirubin buildup in the liver and subsequently in the blood.
Choice D reason:
Metabolic jaundice results from metabolic disorders that affect bilirubin processing or liver function. These disorders can lead to abnormalities in bilirubin metabolism, but they are not directly caused by increased red blood cell breakdown. Metabolic jaundice is less common than other forms and typically involves inherited conditions affecting bilirubin conjugation and excretion.
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