A nurse preparing incoming storm. Which of the following clients should the nurse recommend for discharge planning?
A child who has leukemia and an absolute neutrophil count of 200/mm3 (2.500 to 8.000/mm%)
A child who has a new diagnosis of type diabetes mellitus and is receiving IV insulin
An adolescent who has cystic fibrosis and is receiving their yearly tune-up
An infant who has respiratory syncytial virus and respiratory rate of 70/min
The Correct Answer is B
A) "A child who has leukemia and an absolute neutrophil count of 200/mm³ (2,500 to 8,000/mm³)."
This child is at significant risk for infection due to a severely low neutrophil count, indicating severe neutropenia. Discharge planning for this child would be inappropriate at this time since they need intensive monitoring and care to manage their immunocompromised status and prevent infections.
B) "A child who has a new diagnosis of type 1 diabetes mellitus and is receiving IV insulin."
This child is appropriate for discharge planning. A new diagnosis of type 1 diabetes requires thorough teaching for the family and child about blood glucose monitoring, insulin administration, dietary adjustments, and emergency management. While the child is receiving IV insulin in the hospital, once stabilized, they can be discharged with proper education and support to manage their condition at home.
C) "An adolescent who has cystic fibrosis and is receiving their yearly tune-up."
A cystic fibrosis "tune-up" refers to a period of treatment, often including IV antibiotics and respiratory therapy, to help manage the chronic condition. Since this is part of ongoing care and not an acute issue, discharge planning is not immediately appropriate until the "tune-up" is complete, and the adolescent has stabilized.
D) "An infant who has respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) and a respiratory rate of 70/min."
This infant is at risk for respiratory distress and requires close monitoring. A respiratory rate of 70/min in an infant is elevated, and the child may need additional respiratory support. Discharge planning should not be initiated until the infant's condition improves and they are stable enough to handle care at home.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) "It takes 2 months of scheduled use before this medication is effective.":
This statement is incorrect. Montelukast is a leukotriene receptor antagonist that works to prevent asthma symptoms and improve lung function. It typically takes a few days to a week for the medication to become effective, not 2 months. Immediate relief is not expected, but long-term benefits can be seen within a relatively short period after starting the medication.
B) "I will give this medication to my child every 2 hours if he is wheezing.":
This statement is incorrect. Montelukast is a maintenance medication that is taken on a daily basis to prevent asthma symptoms. It is not a rescue medication and should not be used every 2 hours when the child is wheezing. Rescue medications like short-acting beta-agonists (e.g., albuterol) should be used during an asthma attack or when wheezing occurs.
C) "I will give this medication to my child once daily in the evening.":
This statement is correct. Montelukast is typically taken once daily in the evening. It helps to reduce inflammation and prevent asthma symptoms, and taking it in the evening aligns with the medication's intended use for long-term control of asthma.
D) "I can stop giving my child this medication if he is taking steroids.":
This statement is incorrect. Montelukast is often used alongside steroids (inhaled corticosteroids) for managing asthma. The two medications work in different ways, and discontinuing montelukast while continuing steroids may not provide optimal asthma control. It is important to follow the healthcare provider's instructions regarding the use of both medications.
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"B","dropdown-group-2":"C","dropdown-group-3":"C"}
Explanation
The nurse anticipates the client will likely require blood transfusion as evidenced by the client’s low hemoglobin and low hematocrit.
Rationale:
(i)
B. Blood transfusion: The client’s hemoglobin (9.1 g/dL) and hematocrit (27%) are significantly low, suggesting anemia due to gastrointestinal blood loss. A blood transfusion may be necessary to restore adequate oxygen-carrying capacity and prevent further hemodynamic instability.
(ii)
C. Low hemoglobin: A hemoglobin level below normal indicates blood loss, likely from a bleeding peptic ulcer. This finding supports the need for intervention to prevent further complications such as hypoxia or shock.
F. Low hematocrit: A low hematocrit confirms anemia and blood volume depletion. This finding, along with the client's symptoms and history of dark, tarry stools, further supports the need for a blood transfusion.
Incorrect:
(i)
A. Proton pump inhibitor therapy: While PPIs are essential for ulcer management, they do not immediately address acute blood loss
C. Antibiotic therapy: Antibiotics are needed to eradicate H. pylori, but they are not the primary intervention for anemia.
D. Surgical intervention: Surgery is considered only if bleeding is severe and refractory to medical management.
E. Intravenous fluid resuscitation: IV fluids can help stabilize blood pressure but do not directly correct anemia.
(ii)
A. Elevated white blood cell count: The client’s WBC count is normal, making it irrelevant to this scenario.
B. Positive H. pylori test: While H. pylori is the likely cause of the ulcer, this result does not directly indicate the need for a blood transfusion.
D. Epigastric tenderness: This is a symptom of peptic ulcer disease but does not directly relate to the need for a blood transfusion.
E. Dark, tarry stools: While indicative of gastrointestinal bleeding, the direct lab evidence of anemia (low hemoglobin and hematocrit) is more critical in determining the need for transfusion.
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