A nurse on an intensive care unit is planning care for a client who has increased intracranial pressure following a head injury. Which of the following IV medications should the nurse plan to administer?

Chlorpromazine

Dobutamine

Mannitol

Propranolol

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

C. Mannitol is a osmotic diuretic that is commonly used in the management of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) following a head injury. It works by drawing fluid out of brain tissue and into the bloodstream, thereby reducing cerebral edema and lowering ICP.
A. Chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic medication that does not have direct effects on reducing ICP and is not commonly used in this clinical scenario.
B. Dobutamine is a medication primarily used for increasing cardiac output in patients with heart failure or shock.
D. Propranolol is a beta-blocker medication commonly used to treat conditions such as hypertension, angina, and certain cardiac arrhythmias.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

C. The vestibulocochlear nerve is responsible for both the vestibular function and the cochlear function. Impaired function of the vestibulocochlear nerve could result in symptoms related to vestibular dysfunction, such as disequilibrium (feeling unsteady or off balance) especially with movement.

A. The olfactory nerve (cranial nerve I) is responsible for the sense of smell.
B. Loss of peripheral vision is typically associated with impairment of the optic nerve (cranial nerve II), which is responsible for vision.
D. Deviation of the tongue occurs in injury to the hypoglossal nerve.

A. "These discomforts should decrease with time." B. "Women your age experience thickening of the vaginal tissue." C. "Your symptoms are likely due to decreasing estrogen levels." D. "You should avoid intercourse to prevent injury to your vagina."

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

C. It acknowledges the client's symptoms and provides a likely explanation related to hormonal changes associated with aging. It opens the door for further discussion and potential interventions to address the underlying cause.
A. This response dismisses the client's symptoms without addressing the underlying cause or providing potential solutions.
B. The opposite tends to occur with age – vaginal tissue can become thinner and drier due to decreasing estrogen levels, leading to symptoms like vaginal dryness and itching.
D. While avoiding intercourse may be recommended in certain situations, such as if there is discomfort or pain, it does not address the underlying cause of the symptoms. Additionally, it may not be necessary if appropriate treatments are pursued to alleviate vaginal dryness and itching.

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A nurse on an intensive care unit is planning care for a client who has increased intracranial pressure following a head injury. Which of the following IV medications should the nurse plan to administer?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is performing a cranial nerve assessment on a client following a head injury. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect if the client has impaired function of the vestibulocochlear nerve (cranial nerve VIII)?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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